Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes 10/10/2022 to 15/10/2022

EXPLANATION:

• Fusion Reaction:
• In nuclear fusion, various isotopes of hydrogen are fused together to form a new element, helium. In the process, a small amount of matter is converted into heat energy, as in the case of nuclear fission. This energy is enormous and could be harnessed.
• But the temperature required for nuclear fusion to occur is in the range of 13 million degrees centigrade.
• Since 1950s international community is interested in developing nuclear fusion energy but it has not been possible yet.
• Currently, no material can withstand such high temperatures. Hydrogen fusion experiments are therefore presently being carried out in apparatuses called ‘Tokamaks’ (plasma chambers).
• International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER):
• It is an international scientific and technological collaboration to develop technology for the production of electricity from fusion. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India is a member. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It is an experimental tokamak nuclear fusion reactor that is being built in southern France. Hence statement 3 and 4 are correct.
• Challenge:
• The inability to sustain the reaction temperature for long durations and plasma containment.
• Till date, the output energy obtained through fusion reaction has been lower than the input energy.

EXPLANATION:

• National Nutrition Mission (NNM) - Poshan Abhiyaan:
• It has set the target to reduce stunting from around 39% as per the NFHS to 25% by 2022 among young children, women and adolescent girls.
• ICT based Real Time Monitoring of Anganwadis. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the targets. Hence statement 2 is correct
• Setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres (NRCs). Hence statement 3 is correct
• Involving masses through Jan Andolan for their participation on nutrition through various activities including Social Audits. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• It aims to reduce Stunting, Undernutrition, Anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and Low birth weight by 2% per annum.
• M S Swaminathan's 5 point action programme for nutrition security:
• Ensure calorie rich diet for adolescent girls, expectant mothers and children.
• Ensure intake of proteins in the form of pulses to eradicate protein hunger in women and children.
• Eradicate hidden hunger due to deficiency of micronutrients like vitamin A, vitamin B, Iron and Zinc.
• Ensure clean drinking water supply.
• Spreading nutrition literacy in every village.
• Engaging Private Sector to end Malnutrition:
• Businesses can leverage their product development expertise and production capacity to manufacture supplements and fortified food products (zinc-fortified rice, vitamin A-fortified edible oil, iodised salt). Example, Iodized salt from TATA.
• Over nutrition and under nutrition issue:
• The reason behind India facing the dual burden of under and over-nutrition at the same time is that a vast majority of Indians eat cereal-based food, mainly wheat and rice.
• So, there is an insufficient intake of food such as milk, pulses, and fruits and vegetables, which are rich sources of micronutrients.

• While the Green Revolution phase saw new, fast-growing varieties of staples, especially wheat and rice, the following decades saw a steady decline in the food basket diversity, especially of traditional grains such as Bajra and Millet, which have high nutritional value.

EXPLANATION:

• GM Crops:
• Genetically Modified or transgenic crops are the plant having a combination of genetic material obtained through the use of modern biotechnology.
• For example, artificial insertion of some genes instead of, the plant acquiring it through pollination.
• Although in reality all crops have been “genetically modified” from their original wild state by domestication, selection and controlled breeding over long periods of time.
• Varieties:
• Bt = insect resistant using a toxin from the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis Hence option 1 is correctly matched.
• Ht = tolerant to at least one of the following herbicides. Glyphosate (Roundup) or Glufosinate ammonium (Liberty). Hence option 2 is correctly matched.
• Ht-Bt = crops with stacked traits of both Bt insect resistance and herbicide tolerance. Hence option 3 is correctly matched.
• VR = virus resistant. Hence option 4 is correctly matched.
• Potential benefits of GM plants:
• Higher crop yields.
• Reduced farm costs.
• Increased farm profit due to more resistance to diseases and high shelf life etc.
• Improvement in health and the environment.
• Potential risks:
• The danger of introducing allergens and anti-nutrition factors in foods.
• Transgenes escaping from cultivated crops into wild relatives. Thus, becoming invasive alien crop.
• The potential for pests to evolve resistance to the toxins produced by GM crops.
• The risk of these toxins affecting the non-targeted organisms.

EXPLANATION:

• Prime Minister Modi laid the foundation stone for the world’s first CNG terminal in Gujarat. The world’s first compressed natural gas (CNG) terminal will be set up close to Gujarat’s Bhavnagar port. The terminal will be built by a private consortium of Mumbai-based Padmanabhan Mafatlal Group and the UK’s Foresight Group. The project will be supported by the Gujarat Maritime Board (GMB), which is currently managing the Bhavnagar Port. Hence, statement 1 is  correct.
• It is being implemented using a public-private-partnership approach. Besides the CNG terminal, the private consortium will equip the Bhavnagar Port with additional facilities like ultra-modern container terminal, multipurpose terminal (LPG and Chemical), a Ro-Ro (roll-on/roll-off) terminal for cargo ships that can load and unload wheeled objects such as trolleys and cars, and a liquid cargo terminal. It will also have the fourth largest lock gate system in the world. This is necessary since the high tides can reach around 10 meters and Bhavnagar creek attracts a large amount of sediment in the form of silt. The lock gate system has been set up to stop these sediments from entering into the port basin. Hence, statement 2 is  correct.
• This large terminal can handle 1.5 million metric tonnes each year. This reduces the cost of dredging inside the port. The terminal will have direct doorstep connectivity to the existing roadway and railway network connecting to the large industrial zones, dedicated freight corridors and India’s northern hinterland. The estimated cost of the project is Rs.4,000 crore and Rs.1,300 will be invested in the first phase of the project. The construction of this terminal is expected to start in the first quarter of next year after the Gujarat Maritime Board (GMB) gives the nod to the detailed project report. The terminal will start operations in 2026. Hence, statement 3 is  correct.

EXPLANATION:

• R Venkataramani, a senior advocate in the Supreme Court, has been appointed as the Attorney General of India for a period of three years. R Venkataramani is a lawyer having an experience of 42 years of practice in the apex court of India. He enrolled in the Bar Council of Tamil Nadu in 1977 and joined the chambers of PP Rao, Senior Advocate, Supreme Court in 1979. In 1982, he had set up an independent practice in the Supreme Court and was designated as Senior Advocate of the SC in 1997. He practiced various branches of laws, like constitutional law, law of indirect taxes, human rights law, civil and criminal law, consumer law and laws relating to services. Hence, statement 1 is  correct.
• The Attorney-General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution. He is the highest law officer in India. Hence, statement 2 is  correct.
• The Attorney General of India must be eligible to become a Supreme Court Judge. There is no specific tenure for Attorney-General and he holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India. The Constitution does not specify the grounds or procedure for his dismissal and he can be removed by the President at any time. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The MPC has lowered the GDP forecast and increased the repo rate by 50 basis points. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the repo rate by 50 basis points to 5.90 per cent, which is a three-year high. This makes funding expensive for existing and new borrowers. For existing borrowers, all home, car, personal and education loans on floating rates will become costly. It will also cause a huge burden on household expenses due to the rise in prices of almost all goods and services. The spike in repo rate is a consequence of high inflation, Ukraine crisis, aggressive global central bank policies and crisis in financial markets caused by macroeconomic uncertainties.. Hence, statement 1 is  not correct.
• The rates for the standing deposit facility and the marginal standing facility have also been hiked by 50 basis points to 5.65 per cent and 6.15 percent respectively. The growth of India’s gross domestic product or GDP in April-June was among the highest in the world. However, the Monetary Policy Committee forecasts a decline in the real GDP growth for the current year from the earlier prediction of 7.2 per cent to 7 per cent. Hence, statement 2 is  correct.
• The GDP growth in January-March is forecasted to be at 4.6 percent and for the first quarter of the next financial year, it is expected to be at 7.2 per cent.The GDP growth in July-September is estimated to be at 6.3 per cent and for October-December it is estimated to reach 4.6 per cent.This is the fourth consecutive rate hike after a 40 basis points increase in May and 50 bps increase each in June and August. The central bank has increased the benchmark rate by 1.90 per cent since May to bring down domestic retail inflation, which is staying above the tolerance limit of 6 percent each month Hence, statement 3 is  correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Calcutta High Court has recently held that the West Bengal Government’s Duare Ration Scheme is illegal. Duare Ration Scheme was launched by the state government of West Bengal to provide foodgrains under the public distribution system (PDS) at the doorstep of the entire population of the state. Under the scheme, around 21,000 ration dealers were provided with the financial assistance of Rs.1 lakh each to purchase vehicles for delivering the rations at the doorstep. Hence, statement 1 is  correct.
• A Division Bench of the Calcutta High Court held that the Duare Ration Scheme ultra-vires the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA). It called the scheme illegal as it coincides with the National Food Security Act, 2013. Hence, statement 2 is  correct.
• It held that West Bengal transgressed the limit of delegation by obliging the fair price shop dealers to undertake doorstep delivery of rations since there are no provisions specifying the same in the NFSA. Doorstep delivery of foodgrains can be provided only if the Act is amended by the Central Government for the doorstep delivery or to provide such power to the state government.
• Earlier, the vires of the Duare Ration Scheme was upheld by two single judge orders in the Calcutta High Court. Hence, statement 3 is  correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The VSHORADS missile has been successfully tested at the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur, Odisha.
• The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) conducted two successful tests of the Very Short Range Air Defense System (VSHORADS) missile in Odisha recently. The VSHORADS is a man portable air defense system (MANPADS) designed and developed by DRDO in collaboration with the Indian industry partners. It was developed by DRDO’s Hyderabad-based Research Centre Imarat (RCI) along with other DRDO facilities and private entities. Hence, statement 1 is  correct. 
• Man-portable air-defense systems (MANPADS) are portable surface-to-air missiles capable of attacking low-flying fixed and rotary-wing aircraft. They can be fired while being mounted on an individual’s shoulder or on a tripod. They were developed in the 1950s to protect troops from attacks by jet aircraft. The United States and the USSR were the first to introduce these weapons.Hence, statement 2 is  not correct.
• This missile is capable of neutralizing low-altitude aerial threats at short range. It is designed in a way that the missile can be easily moved from place to place. This missile integrates numerous novel technologies, including a miniaturized Reaction Control System and integrated avionics. It is propelled by a dual thrust solid motor. Very Short Range Air Defense Missiles are critical for defending major cities and strategically important locations. It is the last line of defense from low-flying aerial assets like fighter jets, helicopters and drones. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• A new target has been set under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP). The Indian Government has set a new target of 40 per cent reduction in the particulate matter concentration by 2026 in cities under the NCAP. This is an update of the earlier goal of 20 to 30 per cent reduction of particulate matter concentration by 2024. The city-specific plans under NCAP are being upgraded to make them on par with the new goals. According to the Environment Ministry, 95 of the 131 non-attainment cities covered under the NCAP have reduced their PM10 levels in 2021 when compared with the 2017 levels. Hence, statement 1 is  correct.
• The NCAP was launched in 2019 as the first-ever national framework for air quality management with a time-bound reduction target. It aims to bring down the concentration of PM10 and PM2.5 across India with 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration of the pollutants. Under NCAP, city-specific action plans have been created to include measures to strengthen the monitoring network, reduce pollution from industries and vehicles etc. It also aims to improve capacity to manage air pollution and raise public awareness about the harms caused by the air pollution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Non-attainment cities are those that have fallen short of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards for over 5 years from 2011 to 2015. 20 cities have met the national standards for annual average PM10 concentration, which is 60 micrograms per cubic meters. Cities that showed an overall improvement in PM10 concentration since 2017 are Delhi, Noida, Ghaziabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Chandigarh, Dehradun  and others. Hence, statement 3 is  correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The current Foreign Trade Policy has been extended by six months due to currency volatility and global uncertainty. Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20 has been extended for the period of six months until March 2023. This extension will come to effect from 1st of October 2022. It is being extended in view of the volatile global economic situation. Currently, there are fears of recession in major economies like the United States and Europe. This has resulted in the rapid withdrawal of investments and foreign funds outflow in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Geopolitical crisis caused by the Ukraine war, inflation and monetary policy tightening are weakening the rupee against the US dollar. Currently the USD is at a 22-year high and the Indian Rupee has hit an all-time low of 81.6 against the dollar. Hence, the current geo-political situation is not favorable for the adoption of long-term foreign policy FTP 2022-27. The Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20 provides the framework for increasing exports of goods and services and focuses on improving ease of doing business in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Foreign Trade Policy (2022-27) was announced in 2020 but its adoption was deferred because of disruptions and economic uncertainty caused by the COVID-19 pandemic. It was expected to be launched on October 1, 2022. However, the extension of the FTP 2015-20 delayed the adoption again. The objective of FTP 2022-27 is to provide a strategy to increase India’s share in the global trade to 10 per cent by 2047 and 3 per cent by 2027 from the existing 2.1 per cent. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• This app can be used by Gram Rojgar Sahyak to measure the water level in a well twice a year before and after monsoon. It enables the systematic collection of data on groundwater levels and storing them in a central digital database for analysis. This data can be used for the implementation of Gram Panchayat Development Plan and Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). Using this app, water levels of 2 to 3 wells in a village will be captured. Hence, statement 1 is  not correct.
• The Indian government recently launched the JALDOOT App and JALDOOT App e-brochure. The JALDOOT application was jointly developed by union ministries of Panchayat and Rural Development.The water levels in open wells will be measured twice a year – from May 1 to 31 as pre-monsoon water level and again from October 1 to 31 as post-monsoon level. Jaldoots (officers involved in measuring the water levels), will upload the geo-tagged photograph through the app on every occasion of measurement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The application would work both online and offline mode. In the offline mode, Jaldoots will be able to capture the water level even without internet connections and the captured date will be stored in the mobile. When the app comes online, the data will be uploaded and synchronized with the central server. The data in this application will be stored in the National Water Informatics Center (NWIC), which will help in the creation of various reports through comprehensive assessment and analysis. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Khosta-2 has been classified as sarbecovirus, a member of the coronavirus family. It is related to SARS-CoV-2, which is causing a worldwide pandemic. The pathogen is capable of infecting human cells similar to SARS-CoV-2. It attaches to the ACE-2 entrance enzyme, which is located on the surface of the human cells with a spike-like protein on the surface. While its method of infection is similar to SARS-CoV-2, Koshta-2 is not effective. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Khosta-2 variant of coronavirus found in Russia in Sochi National Park. A team of American researchers have found the Khosta-2 in Russian bats. The zoonotic virus is capable of infecting humans.
• This is unlike the Khosta-1, which is also found in Russian bats but cannot easily spread to humans. Scientists have combined the Khosta-2 with serum obtained from individuals vaccinated against COVID-19. They found that the antibodies in the serum were not able to neutralize the pathogen. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Khosta-2 was discovered in bat samples obtained from Sochi National Park between March and October 2020, when the world was struggling to contain the spread of the SARS-CoV-2. Results were found when the virus was combined with the serum from people who have recently recovered from Omicron infection. It is also found to be completely resistant to all coronavirus vaccines currently available on the market. It does not have the genes that can increase the severity of the disease like the Omicron Variant. Severe acute respiratory syndrome–related coronavirus or sarbecovirus is an enveloped positive-sense, single-stranded RNA virus that enters the host cells by latching on to the ACE2 receptor. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.