123456789101112 12 Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes 20/06/2022 to 25/06/2022 1 / 12 Q1. What is the “mutual security guarantee” that is often seen in the news in case of Pacific Ocean? 1. A country guarantees that the security of another country would be its responsibility, to the extent of participating in a war in favour of the signatory country. 2. This is a new evolution in the sphere of International Relations. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Mutual security guarantee: A country guarantees that the security of another country would be its responsibility, to the extent of participating in a war in favour of the signatory country. It is often used by weak country to counter a powerful country with the help other powerful country. Hence statement 1 is correct. This is a not a new evolution in the sphere of International Relations. It has been in practice since antiquity. However, the use has been more in modern times. For example, the India-USSR treaty of peace and friendship was also a mutual security guarantee pact. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 2 / 12 Q2. Which of the following is/are the member(s) of Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation? 1. India 2. Cook Islands 3. Fiji 4. Solomon Islands Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. All of the above EXPLANATION: About India–Pacific Islands Cooperation: The Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was launched during Hon'ble Prime Minister, Mr. Narendra Modi's visit to Fiji in November 2014. FIPIC includes 14 of the island countries – Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu. Though these countries are relatively small in land area and distant from India, many have large exclusive economic zones (EEZs), and offer promising possibilities for fruitful cooperation. India's focus has largely been on the Indian Ocean where it has sought to play a major role and protect its strategic and commercial interests. The FIPIC initiative marks a serious effort to expand India's engagement in the Pacific region. Members of Forum for: India Cook Islands Fiji Kiribati Marshall Islands Micronesia (Suspended sine die) Nauru Niue Samoa Solomon Islands Palau Papua New Guinea Tonga Tuvalu Vanuatu Thus, option (d) is the correct answer. 3 / 12 Q3. In light of the events unfolding in Maharashtra, consider the following statements about the anti-defection law: 1. The anti-defection law punishes individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs for leaving one party for another. 2. Parliament added it to the Constitution as the Tenth Schedule in 1985. 3. Its purpose was to bring stability to governments by discouraging legislators from changing parties. 4. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, mandate that at least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in favour of a "merger" of parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above. EXPLANATION: The anti-defection legislation penalises certain Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) who switch parties. In 1985, the Tenth Schedule was added by Parliament to the Constitution. By deterring MPs from switching parties, it was intended to restore stability to administrations. Hence statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct. It does, however, permit a group of MPs or MLAs to join (or combine with) another political party without risking the defection penalty. Additionally, it does not punish political parties for supporting or taking on defections from the fold. The 1985 Act defined a "merger" as the "defection" of one-third of an elected political party's members. However, this was altered by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, and now at least two-thirds of a party's members must support a "merger" for it to be considered legal. Hence statement 4 is correct. 4 / 12 Q4. Recently the World Investment report was published by UNCTAD. Which of the following was the findings of the report? 1. Despite a 30% drop in foreign direct investment (FDI) into India, India remains placed seventh. 2. China has jumped to first place, followed by USA and Hong Kong. 3. Only India showed a decrease in inflows among the top ten host economies. 4. Outward FDI from India, on the other hand, increased by 43% to $15.5 billion in 2021. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2 and 4 only D. All of the above EXPLANATION: World Investment Report: It is an annual report published by UNCTAD. Despite a 30% drop in foreign direct investment (FDI) into India, India remains placed seventh. Hence statement 1 is correct. The US is in first place, followed by China and Hong Kong. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Only India showed a decrease in inflows among the top ten host economies. Hence statement 3 is correct. Outward FDI from India, on the other hand, increased by 43% to $15.5 billion in 2021. Hence statement 4 is correct. About FDI (Foreign Direct Investment): Union Government in 2013 constituted a committee to clearly define the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII). At present, if an investor has a stake of 10 % or less in a company, the investment is treated as FII. If an investor has a stake of more than 10 per cent, it is treated as foreign direct investment. About United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD): It is a permanent intergovernmental organisation that was formed in 1964 by the United Nations General Assembly and is part of the UN Secretariat. 5 / 12 Q5. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEW) board has passed the resolution criticizing Iran for violating the JCPOA. Which of the following are true about JCPOA? 1. It was signed between P5 of United Nation Security Council and Iran. 2. Iran agreed to reduce its installed centrifuge to 1/3rd and scale down its uranium stock. 3. UN will keep an embargo on weapons to Iran for 5 years. 4. USA later on Pulled out of the deal along with Russia and China. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above EXPLANATION: IAEA board passes resolution criticizing Iran: The Board of Governors of the International Atomic Energy Agency has endorsed a resolution urging Iran to fully cooperate with UN inspectors investigating three undeclared locations. The UK, France, Germany, and the United States filed the resolution to the IAEA, which was endorsed by 30 nations. The measure was opposed by only Russia and China. The resolution was denounced by Iran. 2015 Agreement b/w P5 + 1 and Iran/Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA): Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Iran will reduce its installed centrifuge to 1/3rd and scale down its uranium stock. Excess stockpile of nuclear parts would be kept with the IAEA. Hence statement 2 is correct. Turn its nuclear facility in Fordow in R&D for 15 years. UN embargo on weapons to Iran for 5 years. Hence statement 3 is correct. UN inspector will be allowed to enter Iran nuclear sites including military ones. USA has Pulled out of the deal. While Russia and China have denounced the move; France, Germany and UK have made it clear that they remain committed to the agreement and will push to enhance trade links with Iran. Hence statement 4 is correct. Now, Iran has warned to withdraw from the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) if the European Nations refer the dispute over its atomic programme to the United Nation Security Council. Analysis: This agreement has showed that diplomacy can achieve much more than the military. Now the major problem is the demand of Saudi Arabia, Egypt and the turkey to get same rights for retaining enriched uranium as that of Iran. Also, Saudi helped Pakistan in getting nuclear weapon and so Pakistan will help it back now. The quantity was decided such that if Iran breaks the deal, it should take, not less than a year, for Iran to enrich its uranium to a weapon level. 6 / 12 Q6. Recently Reserve Bank of India raised its repo rates, which of the following would be the impact on Bond yield due to that action? 1. Bond yield will increase. 2. Bond yield will decrease. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Bond Yields: The Reserve Bank of India has raised interest rates to combat inflation, which is forecasted to continue over 7% until at least September. Bond yields, on the other hand, have increased to their highest levels in three years as a result of this. Hence statement 1 is correct. Bond Yield = Coupon Amount/Price Bond yields are significantly affected by monetary policy—specifically, the course of interest rates. A bond's yield is based on the bond's coupon payments divided by its market price; as bond prices increase, bond yields fall. Falling interest interest rates make bond prices rise and bond yields fall. Conversely, rising interest rates cause bond prices to fall, and bond yields to rise. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 7 / 12 Q7. The Astol project has been started in Gujarat's Valsad district as a part of National Perspective Plan. What do you know about the National Perspective Plan? 1. It is being managed by India’s National Water Development Agency (NWDA) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. 2. It has three parts - Northern Himalayan rivers interlink; Southern peninsular rivers interlink and Intra-State rivers linking. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Par Tapi Narmada project: The Astol project, which will offer tap water to 4.50 lakh people in 174 tribal villages and 1,028 hamlets on the hills of Gujarat's Valsad district, is crucial. The tribes in the region have been resisting the central government's Par-Tapi-Narmada river connection project. About Pari-Tapi-Narmada The Par-Tapi-Narmada river connection project in south Gujarat was cancelled following widespread opposition from tribal people in the region's three districts. About the Project: Envisioned under the 1980 National Perspective Plan. The project proposes to transfer river water from the surplus regions of the Western Ghats to the deficit regions of Saurashtra and Kutch. Components of IRL project/National Perspective Plan (NPP): Since 1980s, it is being managed by India’s National Water Development Agency (NWDA) under the Ministry of Water Resources. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It has three parts: Northern Himalayan rivers interlink. Southern peninsular rivers interlink. Intra-State rivers linking. Hence statement 2 is correct. NWDA has prepared number of reports on all the three components. However, various governments have shelved the idea for a number of reasons. Why this is a good idea? India receives most of its rain during monsoon season. Maximum of which, occurs in northern and eastern part of India. It can be distributed to other parts as well. Protection from monsoon fails, then perineal river could feed other rivers. Prevention of floods. For example Ganga Basin, Brahmaputra basin sees floods almost every year. Commercial importance, as it can be used as inland waterways. New occupation for people living in and around these canals like fishing. 8 / 12 Q8. Which of the following agencies publishes the Environment Performance Index (EPI)? A. Yale Center for Environmental Law and Policy B. Asia Pacific Adaptation Network (APAN) C. Citizens’ Climate Lobby International D. Climate Action Network (CAN) EXPLANATION: Environmental Performance Index 2022: Yale Center for Environmental Law and Policy and Columbia University prepared this index. Hence option (a) is correct. About the Environmental Performance Index: The EPI provides a data-driven overview of the global situation of sustainability. It rates 180 nations based on 40 performance indicators such as climate change, public health, biodiversity, and so on. It includes a scorecard that identifies environmental leaders and laggards, as well as practical advice for countries seeking to move toward a more sustainable future. Performance of India and other countries: The report ranked India at the bottom along with Bangladesh and Pakistan in a list of 180 countries. The US has been ranked at 43rd and the biggest current emitter China has been ranked at 160th position. Top 5 countries: Denmark, UK, Finland, Malta and Sweden have been ranked at the top five positions due to their better performance. India’s position and criticism: The report claimed that India prioritised economic growth over environment. It has markedly poor air quality and quickly rising greenhouse gas emissions. However, as per Indian government, while rejecting the report argued that it does not consider per capita emissions and different socio-economic conditions across countries. 9 / 12 Q9. The Single Nodal Agency (SNA) Dashboard of PFMS (Public Financial Management System) was recently launched by the Union Ministry of Finance. Consider the following information about Public Financial Management System. 1. It tracks fund disbursement in real time. 2. It covers all government schemes. 3. It only covers central government as states have their mechanism. 4. It is administered by the Department of Expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above EXPLANATION: PFMS (Public Financial Management System): The Single Nodal Agency (SNA) Dashboard of PFMS (Public Financial Management System) was recently launched by the Union Ministry of Finance About SNA: It is a substantial overhaul of the way money for Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are issued, dispersed, and managed that began in 2021. Each state is obliged to identify and designate a SNA for each scheme under this system. All monies for that State in a specific plan have now been credited to this bank account, and all expenditures incurred by all other Implementing Agencies involved have been deducted from this account. Public Financial Management System (PFMS)/Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System (CPSMS): It tracks fund disbursement in real time and ensures that state treasuries are integrated with the Centre to ensure money is send as and when required (just in time approach). Hence statement 1 is correct. It provides real-time information regarding all government schemes, and on resource availability and utilisation across schemes. Hence statement 2 is correct. The government has set a target to integrate PFMS with all state treasuries to implement Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for welfare and scholarship schemes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is administered by the Department of Expenditure and implemented by the Controller General of Accounts. Hence statement 4 is correct. 10 / 12 Q10. Recently State Food Safety Index was published. Which of the following is true about the performance of various states of India? 1. Tamil Nadu topped the State Food Safety Index. 2. Among Smaller States, Sikkim stood first. 3. Among UTs, Jammu and Kashmir secured first. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. All of the above EXPLANATION: State Food Safety Index: On World Food Safety Day, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) issued the 4th State Food Safety Index (SFSI). It aims to assess states' performance across five food safety metrics. State Food Safety Index (SFSI) The index was created by the FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) in 2018-19 to assess states' performance on five key food safety indicators. Human Resources and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing - Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training & Capacity Building, and Consumer Empowerment are just a few of the aspects. The index will assist us in providing our inhabitants with safe and healthy meals. Performance of various states: Tamil Nadu topped the State Food Safety Index followed by Gujarat and Maharashtra. Hence statement 1 is correct. Among Smaller States, Goa stood first, followed by Manipur and Sikkim. Hence statement 2 is correct. Among UTs, Jammu and Kashmir, Delhi and Chandigarh secured first, second and third ranks. Hence statement 3 is correct. 11 / 12 Q11. The Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for the Khari season 2022-23 were recently approved by the cabinet. Consider the following about Minimum Support Prices (MSP)? 1. At the beginning of the sowing season, the Government announces MSP. 2. MSP is announced for 23 crops. 3. After harvesting, the produce is purchased at MSP by FCI. 4. Effective procurement on MSP takes place for three crops – Wheat, Rice and Sugarcane. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above. EXPLANATION: Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for the Khari season 2022-23: News: The Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for the Khari season 2022-23 were recently approved by the cabinet. The rates for 14 Kharif crops have been increased, the hikes ranging from 4% to 8%. Agricultural Price Policy in India: At the beginning of the sowing season for Kharif and Rabi crops, the Government announces MSP for 23 crops that the farmer are willing to sell to the FCI for PDS and buffer stock operations. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct. After harvesting, the produce is purchased at MSP by FCI. Hence statement 3 is correct. Then, the Grains are sold at the PDS outlets (fair price shop) at issue price. The difference between both - MSP and fair price- is the food subsidy. Government decides the support prices based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). CACP defines production costs of crops under three categories: A2 is the actual paid-out expenses incurred by farmers — in cash and kind — on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, hired labour, fuel, irrigation and other inputs from outside. A2+FL includes A2 cost plus an imputed value of unpaid family labour. C2 is the most comprehensive definition as it also accounts for the rentals or interest loans, and fixed capital assets over and above A2+FL. Criticism of MSP: While the government announces MSP for 23 crops, effective MSP-linked procurement occurs mainly for wheat, rice and cotton. Hence statement 3 is correct. While there is no government procurement, per se, in sugarcane, a crop with assured irrigation, mills are legally obligated to buy cane from farmers at prices fixed by government - an effective MSP like engagement. This has resulted into buffer stocks of rice and wheat to above the required norms and on the other hand, it has caused frequent price spikes in pulses and edible oils, despite substantial imports of these commodities. It helps the big farmer while the majority of farmers in India are subsistence farmers, who are not even aware of the MSP. Food subsidy burden is increasing and needs to be rationalized so as to spend on infrastructure. 12 / 12 Q12. Consider the following statements about the Trafficking in Persons (Prevention, Care and Rehabilitation) Bill, 2021. 1. The Bill expands the definition of trafficking to include bonded labour, begging and forced marriage only. 2. Rigorous imprisonment and imprisonment for life for repeat offenders. 3. Establishment of a National Anti-trafficking Bureau. 4. State anti-trafficking officers will provide relief and rehabilitation services through district units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above. EXPLANATION: Laws against Trafficking: News: Activists from different part of the country are planning to travel to the national capital and press for the passage of the Trafficking in Persons (Prevention, Care and Rehabilitation) Bill, 2021. Global Slavery Index: It is published by Walk Free Foundation highlighted that Indian is home to 8 million people in modern slavery. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act (ITPA) 1956: It lays down the legal framework for sex work in India. It Provide for Rescue, Protect and Rehabilitate approach. However, a case study in Kolhapur, Maharashtra showed that some of the sex workers rescued did not have living parents, some had left home decades ago, and some had families who did not know they were engaged in sex work. The women were shunted from home to home and finally released after some years. Thus, the act of ‘rescue and rehabilitation’ are non-less than incarceration and trauma. All the sex work is assumed to be a result of trafficking. Adult women should produce families to be released. So, National Commission for Women has been demanding amends to the Act, to legalise the wilful sex trade, and allow them to work with “dignity”. Trafficking of Persons (Prevention, Protection and Rehabilitation) Bill, 2018 The Bill expands the definition of trafficking to include bonded labour, begging, forced marriage, deception or coercion etc. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Rigorous imprisonment and imprisonment for life (imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life) for repeat offenders. Hence statement 2 is correct. Establishment of a National Anti-trafficking Bureau to act as a nodal agency to deal with the crimes under the act and cooperation with authorities in foreign countries. Hence statement 3 is correct. State anti-trafficking officers who shall also provide relief and rehabilitation services through district units and other civil-society organisations. Hence statement 4 is correct. Spells out various relief and rehabilitation measure for the victims of trafficking, and seeks the formation of an inter-ministerial committee for this purpose.Remark: Human Rights Watch has called it a Misguided Attempt. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte