Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes 04/07/2022 to 09/07/2022

EXPLANATION:

• Nixtamalization is a method by which the ancient peoples of Mesoamerica like the Maya used to soak and cook their maize in an alkaline solution and make it more palatable, nutritious, and non-toxic. Nixtamal is derived from the Nahuatl word nextamalli, meaning ‘nixtamalized maize dough’. Hence statement (1) is correct.
• Maize, beans, and squash are called the ‘Three Sisters’ and formed the basis of diets throughout pre-Columbian North and Mesoamerica. Scientists find maize starch spherulites (polymer), a unique byproduct of nixtamalization. Maize is the primary crop of the Americas and has been cultivated in the region for millennia. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• They are standoff range weapons, which are fired from a range far enough to allow the attacker to evade defensive counter-fire. BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine. Its first stage brings the missile to supersonic speed and then gets separated. Hence statement (1) is correct.
• The liquid ramjet or the second stage takes the missile closer to three times the speed of sound in the cruise phase.The missile has a very low radar signature, making it stealthy, and can achieve a variety of trajectories. Hence statement (2) is correct.
• The ‘fire and forget’ type missile can achieve a cruising altitude of 15 km and a terminal altitude as low as 10 m to hit the target. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• It is a form of gravitational lensing in which the light from a background source is bent by the gravitational field of a foreground lens to create distorted, multiple, and/or brightened images. The separation of order a milli-arcsecond between multiple images is generally too small to be resolved by modern telescopes. The combined light of all images is instead observed as a single image of the source, blended with any light that may be emanating from the lens itself.
• The brightness of the combined image is a function of the projected separation of the source and lens on the observer's sky and thus can change as the source, lens, and observer move relative to one another. Hence option (b) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Tourism, the development of support infrastructure, and eventual manufacturing of sporting goods used in air sports can lead to “economic multiplier” effects. The policy aims to “organise a previously unregulated sector” and could potentially generate annual revenue of Rs 8,000 to Rs 10,000 crore in the near future. Hence statement (1) is correct.
• There will be a four-tier governance structure for air sports in India, launched by Ministry of Civil Aviation
• Air Sports Federation of India (ASFI) as the apex governing body;
• National associations for individual air sports or a set of air sports, as appropriate;
• Regional (e.g. West/ South/ North East etc.) or State and Union Territory level units of the national air sports associations, as appropriate; and
  District-level air sports associations, as appropriate. Hence statement (2) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Tendu (Diospyros melanocaylon) is also called ‘green gold’ and is a prominent minor forest produce in India. In 1964, the trade in tendu leaves was nationalised in then-undivided Madhya Pradesh. The state forest department collects tendu leaves, allows their transportation and sells them to traders. In Chhattisgarh, tendu leaf is collected through the state minor forest produce federation.
• There are more than 10,300 collection centres or phads where tendu leaves are collected from collectors. Hence option (b) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Striped hyenas sport a dog-like appearance, with a long, black muzzle and large, pointed ears, which provide an excellent hearing.
• Their gold or brownish-gray fur is lined with black stripes that camouflages them in the tall grass, and a bushy mane that stretches from neck to tail—like a full-body mohawk—makes them look more intimidating to rivals. Though the species has a vast range, including sub-Saharan and northwestern Africa, India, and Turkey, their populations are sparse. Hence statement (1) is correct.
• Striped hyenas are mostly scavengers, feasting on the carcasses of large animals. This, coupled with their shyness; nocturnal nature; and habitats, which include rocky outcroppings, dense shrublands, and wetlands, can make them difficult to see. Hence statement (2) is correct.
• The International Union for the Conservation of Nature lists striped hyenas as near-threatened by extinction. Striped hyenas are now extinct in Bangladesh, and their status is uncertain in other parts of their range. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021:

• Proposes complete ban on commercial surrogacy and allows only altruistic surrogacy. So, under no circumstance’s money shall be paid to her, except for medical expenses including insurance (36 months). Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
• Only Indian married couple, foreigners with Indian spouse, and divorcee or widow single women would be allowed. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It allows single women including divorcees and widows to become surrogate mother. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Setting up of a regulatory body at centre and state level.
• They have to take the child irrespective of any deformity at birth.

Eligibility conditions to make use of the services of a surrogate mother:

• Any couple that has ‘proven infertility’.
• The couple should be Indian citizens who have been married for at least five years.
• The female must be between 23 to 50 years and the male, 26 to 55 years.
• They cannot have any surviving children (biological, adopted or surrogate); However, this would not include a ‘child who is mentally or physically challenged or suffers from life threatening disorder or fatal illness.’

EXPLANATION:

Atmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana:

• The government has surpassed the formal employment creation target set under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana (ABRY), which rewards employers for creating jobs. 
• According to the most recent data, 51 million jobs have been created under the programme since its notification in December 2020, which is more than a quarter more than the initial target of 5.85 million.

About Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana:

• It offers subsidies for provident fund contributions for enterprises registered with the Employees' Provident Fund Organization to hire new employees (EPFO). Hence statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
• For a period of two years, organisations with up to 1000 employees would receive employee and employer contributions totalling 24 percent of earnings (12 percent of wages & 12 percent of wages, respectively). Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Employers with more than 1,000 employees will get a 12-percent employee contribution for two years. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Only new hires with Aadhaar-seeded EPFO accounts (UAN) would receive the upfront subsidy amount under the plan.

EXPLANATION:

Powers of Governor, floor test law in the spotlight

• News: The Governor's constitutional authority to order a floor test becomes more important in Maharashtra since the Chief Minister may lose the majority.
• The Governor may dissolve the Assembly with the help and recommendation of the government, according to Article 174(2)(b) of the Constitution.
• When the advise comes from a Chief Minister whose support may be in question, the Governor can use his judgement.

Constitutional Provisions Related to Governor’s Role in Calling an Assembly Session:

• Article 174: Says that the Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit.

Cases:

• In Hargovind Pant vs Dr Raghukul Tilak (1979), the apex court made it clear that the Governor is not an employee of the central government, nor is he under its control or accountable to it. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In B.R. Kapur versus State of Tamil Nadu (2001), Supreme Court held that a State Governor need not to be swayed by “popular will” or the “brute” support a chief minister aspirant enjoys from her party MLAs. The governor must use his discretion to ensure a stable government. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Constitution does not give elected members of a majority party unfettered right to elect an incompetent or disqualified person as chief minister.
• In Nabam Rebia vs State of Ar.P. 2016, the apex court opined that the Governor is not the conscience-keeper of the “Legislative Assembly” and so cannot interfere in the activities of the Assembly like fixing a date for Assembly sessions or determining the majority in Assembly. Hence statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Sanctions under the UN Security Council Resolution 1267. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• China has put a "technical hold" on India's and the US' proposal to name Abdul Rehman Makki, the brother-in-law of Lashkar-e-Toiba founder Hafiz Saeed, in accordance with UN Security Council Resolution 1267.

UNSC special wing 1267 committee:

• This committee was formed to block all help to the terrorist groups from the member countries and is also known as UNSC committee on Al-Qaeda and associated entities. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Hidden vetoes:

• The sanctions committees can take decisions only unanimously. This means any of the 15 members can veto a move without offering any explanation. This amounts to allowing a “hidden veto” for every member of the council.
• The general membership of the UN is never ever formally informed of how and why requests for listing terrorists are not acceded to.

India:

• India has sought changes in the U.N. procedures to designate a group or an individual as terrorist. 
• India has sent several letters to both, UN and Pakistan, asking how could hafiz Saeed has finance for his rallies, in spite of being on the 1267 list.

EXPLANATION:

Data localisation

• In order to minimise its "downsides", Google has proposed that Local storage requirements should be "as tightly restricted as feasible."
• Under India's data protection bill sensitive personal data there must be kept in India. 
• The majority of this data are now kept in a cloud outside of India.
• According to the Sri Krishna Committee Report, personal data must be held on Indian servers at least once.

About Personal data protection bill 2019:

• The Bill classifies the data into 3 types:
• Critical data (characterised by the government) must be stored and handled only in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Sensitive data like passwords, financial data, health data, biometric data, etc may be processed outside India with the explicit consent of the user and to be stored in India only. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• General data is any data that is non-critical and non-sensitive is categorised as general data with no limitation on where it is stored or managed. Hence statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

Plastic Waste Management (A) Rules 2016: 

• It aims to phase out of Multilayered Plastic (MLP), which is “non-recyclable, or non-energy recoverable, or with no alternate use and it bans the bags of below 50 microns due to their non-disposability. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.

• Extended Producer Responsibility has been introduced for the first time. Accordingly, individual and bulk generators like offices, commercial establishments etc, are to segregate the plastic waste at source. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Persons or organizations, including even political parties, have been made responsible for management of waste generated from the events. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been mandated to formulate guidelines.
• Plastic carry bags will be available only with shopkeepers/street vendors, pre-registered with local bodies. The amount collected as registration fee is to be used for waste management.