Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 05 to 10 Feb, 2024

EXPLANATION:

• The Animal Husbandry Development Fund (AHDF) is a financial mechanism aimed at bolstering the growth and sustainability of the animal husbandry sector. Essentially, it serves as a means to provide financial support, incentives, and resources to enhance the productivity, efficiency, and welfare of livestock farmers and related enterprises.
• It is a central sector scheme announced under Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Initiative) in 2022. The AHIDF seeks to address the livestock industry's critical challenges and promote its growth and modernisation. Hence, statement 1 is not correct, and statement 2 is correct.
• The AHIDF is managed by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). It provides financial support and incentives to establish modern infrastructure facilities such as dairy processing plants, meat processing units, cold storage facilities, and feed mills. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The primary objectives of the AHIDF include:

1. Infrastructure Development: The fund aims to enhance the infrastructure in the animal husbandry sector by providing financial assistance to establish modern facilities. This includes setting up processing plants, cold storage units, and other essential infrastructure to improve the efficiency and productivity of the sector.
2. Promoting Private Investment: The AHIDF encourages private sector participation by providing low-interest loans and incentives for investments in animal husbandry infrastructure. This helps attract private capital into the sector, leading to the development of state-of-the-art facilities and technologies.
3. Increasing Value Addition: By supporting the establishment of processing units and cold storage facilities, the AHIDF facilitates value addition to livestock products. This helps increase farmers' income, reduces post-harvest losses, and improves the quality of products reaching consumers.
4. Enhancing Livelihoods: The fund aims to generate employment opportunities and improve the livelihoods of farmers and rural communities engaged in animal husbandry. The development of modern infrastructure creates jobs and increases the production of processing and marketing.
5. Boosting Exports: Improved infrastructure and value addition in the livestock sector can enhance the quality and competitiveness of Indian livestock products in both domestic and international markets. This, in turn, can contribute to increasing exports and foreign exchange earnings.

• Recently, the Central government extended the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) till 2025-26. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the central government introduced Bharat rice at Rs 29/kg. This was done to tackle the country's rising retail price of rice. Bharat rice will be available in packs of 5kg and 10kg, making it accessible to more of the population. The rice is expected to be of good quality and should help ease the burden of rising food prices for many families.
• The Food Corporation of India (FCI) will provide 5 lakh tonnes of rice to two cooperatives, the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) and National Cooperative Consumers' Federation of India (NCCF), as well as retail chain Kendriya Bhandar in the first phase. Hence, statement (c) is not correct.
• The Bharat rice is also accessible through mobile vans as well. The Union Minister Piyush Goyal launched 100 mobile vans to make it more accessible. It will be available through various retail chains, including e-commerce platforms. 
• In the last years, the government introduced subsidised wheat called Bharat atta. Bharat Atta is already being sold by these three agencies @ Rs. 27.50 per Kg in 5 kg and 10 Kg packs from their physical retail outlets, mobile vans, and other retail networks and e-commerce platforms.

EXPLANATION: 

• Explorers and naturalists have found the factors leading to biodiversity concentration for centuries. Humboldt’s enigma is that the Earth’s tropical areas are not the only biodiverse regions. According to this idea, many areas outside the tropics, such as mountains, are also highly biodiverse. The world’s tropical areas receive more energy from the Sun because of the earth’s inclination angle. So, the tropics have greater primary productivity, facilitating greater diversity: more ecological niches become available, creating more complex ecosystems and greater biological diversity. Hence, Statement (a) is correct.
•  The proponents of Humboldt’s enigma have held that the earth’s tropical areas alone don’t contain all the biodiverse regions and that many areas outside the tropics are highly biodiverse. These places are mountains. A simple way to think of Humboldt’s enigma in India is to consider the biodiversity in our tropical areas south of the Tropic of Cancer.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the Union government introduced the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, in Lok Sabha to prevent the use of unfair means in public examinations. The objectives of the bills are to prevent organised gangs and institutions from being involved in unfair means for monetary gains and to maintain transparency, fairness, and credibility in public examination systems.
• Under the bill, 'Public Examinations' will include exams conducted by the UPSC, Railway Recruitment Boards, Institute of Banking Personnel Selection, Ministries or Departments of the Central Government, SSC, National Testing Agency, and such other authorities as may be notified by the Centre. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Section 9 of the Bill states that all offences shall be cognisable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable. In cognisable offences, police should investigate the case without obtaining permission from the Magistrate.  Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• According to the bill, unfair means will be punishable with imprisonment for a term not less than three years but which may extend to five years and with a fine of up to Rs 10 lakh. Suppose a person or a group of persons commits an organised crime, including the examination authority service provider or any other institution. In that case, they will be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than five years but which may extend to ten years and with a fine not less than Rs 1 crore. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Suppose an institution is involved in committing an organised crime. In that case, its property shall be subjected to attachment and forfeiture, and the proportionate cost of the examination shall also be recovered from it. 
• The bill mandates that offences under the proposed law will be investigated by officers not the below rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police or Assistant Commissioner of Police. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Union Minister, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, recently inaugurated the two-day Understanding of Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) Mela 2024 at the National Bal Bhavan, New Delhi. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Ullas Mela aims to achieve the target of 100% literacy by 2030; the Government of India is implementing a centrally sponsored innovative scheme called Nav Bharat Saksharta Karyakram or New India Literacy Program for FYs 2022-2027. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The scheme, in line with NEP 2020, targets adults (aged 15 and above) who cannot attend school or attain formal education. It focuses on imparting Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) through critical life skills, such as Digital Literacy, Financial Literacy, Legal Literacy, Environmental Literacy, Health & Hygiene, etc. Implemented in a hybrid mode, States/UTs have flexibility in offline, online, or combined approaches. The motto of the ULLAS Mela is 'Jan-Jan Sakshar'. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The scheme consists of five components: (1) Foundational Literacy and Numeracy, (2) Critical Life Skills, (3) Basic Education, (4) Vocational Skills, and (5) Continuing Education.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the United States reported four cases of fungal infection caused by Candida auris in January 2024. The C. auris is a fungal infection that has emerged as a crucial health concern due to its ability to cause severe infections. This resistance is attributed to its genetic makeup, which allows it to adapt quickly to environmental stressors and evade standard antifungal therapies. This resistance is attributed to its genetic makeup, which allows it to adapt rapidly to environmental stressors and avoid traditional antifungal therapies. Hence, statement (a) is NOT correct.
• Candida auris was first detected in Japan in 2009. Since then, it has rapidly spread across the world, causing severe infections primarily in healthcare settings such as hospitals and long-term care facilities.
• It can cause many types of infections, such as bloodstream infections, wound infections, ear infections, etc. The clinical manifestations of Candida auris infections vary, ranging from bloodstream infections to wound and ear infections. It directly attacks the Human immune system and weakens the immunity in the human body. Those with prolonged hospital stays are particularly vulnerable to infection. Additionally, the ability of Candida auris to persist on surfaces contributes to its potential for transmission between patients.

EXPLANATION:

• Tax buoyancy refers to the responsiveness or elasticity of tax revenue concerning economic activity or tax base changes. In simpler terms, it measures how much tax revenue increases (or decreases) in response to changes in the underlying economy. Tax buoyancy is a critical Concept in fiscal policy and tax administration as it helps governments understand the dynamics of tax collection and plan their budgets accordingly. Moreover, tax buoyancy helps to asses the government tax system. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the government’s tax revenue growth and GDP changes. It indicates whether tax revenues grow faster or slower than the economy. A buoyancy greater than one means that tax revenue grows faster than the economy, while a buoyancy less than one indicates that tax revenue grows slower than the economy. If the buoyancy equals one, tax revenue increases at the same rate as the economy. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• Various factors, including economic growth, tax rates, tax compliance, tax administration efficiency, and the structure of the tax system, influence tax buoyancy. In other words, When a tax is buoyant, the revenue increases without increasing the tax rate. There is a strong connection between the government’s tax revenue earnings and economic growth. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 
• Factors Affecting Tax Buoyancy:

1. Economic Growth: Strong economic growth can lead to higher tax buoyancy as the tax base expands.
2. Tax Rates: Changes in tax rates can influence taxpayer behaviour and affect the elasticity of tax revenue.
3. Tax Compliance: High levels of tax compliance contribute to greater tax buoyancy by ensuring accurate reporting of taxable income.
4. Tax Administration Efficiency: Efficient tax administration systems can enhance tax buoyancy by reducing compliance costs and improving revenue collection.
5. Structure of the Tax System: The design and incidence of taxes influence their buoyancy, with taxes closely linked to economic activity generally exhibiting higher buoyancy.

EXPLANATION:

• Scientists have identified a new class of virus-like entities called "Obelisks" in the human gut and mouth. Researchers searched for possible viroids among the microbes' genes that reside in the human body. These viroids may influence gene activity within the human microbiome. Viroids are tiny loops of RNA, a genetic cousin of DNA, lacking protective shells and instructions to build proteins. Obelisks represent their class of organisms. They lie somewhere between viruses and viroids. Hence, statement (b) is NOT correct.
• Obelisks were found in 7% of human faecal metatranscriptomes, providing insight into gene activity in the gut microbiome. Obelisks were present in about 53% of the samples in mouth metatranscriptomes. However, the hosts of other obelisks remain unknown.
• It is still unknown how or whether these viroids affect human health. There is speculation that viroids may shape the human microbiome, especially considering their ability to infect bacteria.

EXPLANATION:

• The Union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs recently launched a web portal for the Coal Mines Provident Fund Organization(CMPFO), namely C-CARES. The C-CARES will enable CMPF subscribers and coal companies to perform various functions tailored to their needs, including online settlement of claims, paperless working, timely and accurate settlement of claims, reduction in processing time, and grievance redressal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), a research and development organisation under MeitY, developed the C-CARES web portal. The portal promises to revolutionise record-keeping and streamline processes for CMPFO subscribers and pensioners. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Vayu Shakti is a biennial military exercise conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) to showcase its operational capabilities and firepower. The exercise serves multiple purposes, including testing the readiness of the Air Force, evaluating its equipment and tactics, and demonstrating its strength to domestic and international audiences. This is an endogenous exercise, and no other countries are involved. Exercise Vayu Shakti is set to deliver a compelling display of the Indian Air Force's offensive and defensive prowess, seamlessly operating day and night. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Moreover, during Vayu Shakti exercises, the IAF demonstrates various air power capabilities, including precision strikes, air-to-ground and air-to-air combat, close air support, suppression of enemy air defences, and air mobility operations. These exercises involve various aircraft, weaponry, and support systems, showcasing the integration and coordination between different branches of the Air Force. The last edition of exercise Vayu Shakti was held on 16 February 2019. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The IAF is set to demonstrate its air fighting and operational capabilities during the mega exercise Vayu Shakti 2024, scheduled at the Pokharam Range in Jaisalmer on Feb 17th. It occurs every three years and includes fighters, helicopters, force enablers, and support systems. The exercise also showcases joint operations with the Indian Army. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• This year's edition of the Vayu Shakti exercise will see all primary fighter aircraft, including the Su-30MKIs, LCA Tejas, Mirage 2000 and MiG-29s, showcasing their firepower by shooting missiles and bombs at designated targets. Prime Minister Modi will be the chief guest at this event.
• Overall, Vayu Shakti plays a crucial role in enhancing the operational readiness and combat effectiveness of the Indian Air Force while also demonstrating its prowess to the world. Through realistic training scenarios and dynamic displays of air power, the exercise underscores India's commitment to safeguarding its national interests and maintaining peace in the region.