Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 05 to 10 June, 2023

Explanation:

• These turtles primarily inhabit freshwater ecosystems such as rivers, lakes, ponds, marshes, and rice fields. They prefer slow-moving or stagnant water bodies with dense vegetation. Thus, statement 1 is correct
• The Indian black turtle is currently classified as "Least Concern" on the IUCN Red List. However, it is important to note that conservation statuses can change over time, and localized populations may face threats due to habitat loss, pollution, poaching, and the illegal pet trade. Thus, statement 2 is not correct
• Indian black turtles are omnivorous, feeding on a variety of food items. Their diet consists of aquatic vegetation, fruits, insects, snails, worms, small fish, and carrion. Thus, statement 3 is correct
• The Indian black turtle, also known as the Indian pond turtle or Indian roofed turtle, belongs to the family Geoemydidae.
• It is native to various regions of South Asia, including India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.

Explanation:

• India has established strategic petroleum reserves at three different locations, namely Vishakhapatnam, Mangalore, and Padur. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The total capacity of India's strategic petroleum reserves is around 5.33 million metric tons (MMT) or approximately 39 million barrels. Vishakhapatnam has a capacity of 1.33 MMT, while both Mangalore and Padur have a capacity of 2.5 MMT each. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The strategic petroleum reserves are intended for emergency use and can be utilized during supply disruptions, natural disasters, or any other event that may impact the availability of crude oil in the country. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
• Future Expansion: The Indian government has plans to expand the strategic petroleum reserves further to enhance the country's energy security. Additional locations, such as Bikaner in Rajasthan and Rajkot in Gujarat, have been identified for establishing future reserves.

Explanation:

• Adi Kailash is situated in the easternmost part of the Kumaon Himalayas, near the border of India and Tibet (China). It is part of the Johar Valley and lies in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• Adi Kailash holds great religious and spiritual significance for Hindus, Jains, and Buddhists. It is considered to be a holy pilgrimage site and is often regarded as an alternative to the more famous Mount Kailash in Tibet. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• Adi Kailash gets its name due to its striking resemblance to Mount Kailash in Tibet. The mountain peak has a distinctive shape similar to that of the renowned Mount Kailash.
• One of the notable attractions near Adi Kailash is Parvati Lake. Located at the base of the mountain, this pristine lake is considered sacred by pilgrims. It is believed to possess healing properties and is often visited by devotees during their pilgrimage to Adi Kailash. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 
• Adi Kailash offers breathtaking views of the surrounding Himalayan peaks, valleys, and rivers. The region is known for its scenic beauty, including snow-clad mountains, alpine meadows, cascading waterfalls, and diverse flora and fauna.

• Explanation:
• Zombie lending refers to the practice of a bank or financial institution providing additional loans to a borrower who is already in financial distress and may struggle to repay existing debts. The lending continues despite the borrower's deteriorating financial situation. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• In a zombie lending scenario, the borrower is typically considered to have limited or no capacity to repay the loan in the future. They are often facing financial difficulties, insolvency, or an unsustainable business model, which makes it unlikely for them to generate sufficient income or cash flow to repay the debt. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• Zombie lending can create moral hazard because it provides a safety net to borrowers who take excessive risks or engage in risky financial behavior. Knowing that they will receive continued financial support despite their financial distress, borrowers may be incentivized to engage in risky activities, potentially exacerbating their financial problems and increasing overall systemic risk. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• Regulators play a significant role in addressing the issue of zombie lending in the financial system. They have the responsibility to monitor and regulate banks and financial institutions to ensure prudent lending practices. Regulators implement policies and regulations to promote financial stability, including monitoring the quality of loan portfolios, conducting stress tests, and enforcing guidelines to prevent excessive risk-taking and address the issue of zombie lending. Thus, statement 4 is not correct.

Explanation:

• Chikankari embroidery is a traditional embroidery style that originated in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. It involves delicate and intricate threadwork on fabric, creating beautiful patterns and designs. Lucknow is renowned for its skilled artisans who specialize in Chikankari embroidery. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• Pashmina shawls are not associated with the region of Kutch, Gujarat. Pashmina shawls are made from the wool of the Pashmina goat and are traditionally produced in the region of Kashmir in northern India. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• Madhubani painting is not associated with the state of Odisha. It is a traditional art form that originated in the Mithila region of Bihar. Madhubani paintings are characterized by vibrant colors and intricate patterns, often depicting nature, mythological themes, and daily life. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
• Dhokra metal casting is a traditional craft associated with the Bastar region in Chhattisgarh. It is a non-ferrous metal casting technique that uses the "lost wax" process to create intricate and rustic metal sculptures. The Dhokra artisans of Bastar are known for their skill in this ancient art form. Thus, statement 4 is correct.

Explanation:

• The primary objective of the Enforcement Directorate is to enforce two key economic laws in India: the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). The agency focuses on combating money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and other economic offenses. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The Enforcement Directorate operates under the administrative control of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It has jurisdiction across the country and handles cases related to financial crimes and economic offenses at the national level. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• While the Enforcement Directorate plays a crucial role in combating financial crimes, including money laundering and foreign exchange violations, its primary focus is not specifically on cases of corruption and bribery. It primarily deals with economic offenses related to money laundering, financial frauds, and violations of economic laws. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
• The Enforcement Directorate collaborates with various domestic and international agencies to gather evidence, exchange information, and coordinate efforts in combating financial crimes. This collaboration is crucial in effectively investigating cases, gathering intelligence, and taking appropriate actions against individuals or entities involved in financial offenses. Thus, statement 4 is correct.

Explanation:

• GDP represents the monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders within a given time frame, typically a year. It includes both tangible goods and intangible services and serves as an indicator of the economic activity and size of an economy. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• GDP only includes the value of final goods and services, not intermediate goods and services. Intermediate goods are those that are used as inputs in the production process and are not counted in GDP to avoid double-counting. Only the value of the final product or service is included in GDP. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• GDP can be calculated using the expenditure approach, where it is measured by summing up the value of consumption (C), investment (I), government spending (G), and net exports (exports - imports). This approach provides an estimate of the total spending within an economy, representing the overall value of goods and services produced. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• GDP per capita does not directly represent the average income of individuals in a country. Instead, it provides an estimate of the average economic output per person. It is obtained by dividing the total GDP of a country by its population, giving an indication of the economic productivity or standard of living on a per-person basis. Thus, statement 4 is not correct.
• Nominal vs. Real GDP: GDP can be measured in nominal terms or real terms. Nominal GDP reflects the current prices of goods and services, while real GDP adjusts for inflation, providing a more accurate measure of economic growth over time.
• While GDP is a widely used economic indicator, it has certain limitations. It does not capture non-market activities, such as household work or volunteer services, and does not fully account for factors like income distribution, quality of life, or environmental sustainability.

Explanation:

• UN Peacekeeping operations are authorized by the UN Security Council, not the UN General Assembly. The Security Council has the mandate to determine threats to international peace and security and to take appropriate measures, which can include authorizing peacekeeping missions. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The primary purpose of UN Peacekeeping is not to engage in active combat operations. Peacekeeping missions aim to maintain peace and security, facilitate political processes, protect civilians, and support post-conflict transitions. Peacekeepers generally operate under a mandate of using force only in self-defense and defense of the mandate. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• Troop-contributing countries play a vital role in UN Peacekeeping missions. They provide personnel, including military, police, and civilian personnel, as well as equipment and resources to support the mission's objectives. These contributions come from various member states around the world. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• Blue Helmets: UN Peacekeepers are often referred to as "Blue Helmets" due to the distinctive light blue helmets and berets they wear as part of their uniform. The blue color symbolizes the UN's neutrality and commitment to peace.
• Challenges: UN Peacekeeping faces numerous challenges, including limited resources, complex political environments, asymmetric conflicts, and evolving threats such as terrorism and organized crime. Peacekeepers also face risks to their own safety and security while operating in volatile environments.

Explanation:

• The Kakhovka Dam is located in southern Ukraine on the Dnieper River. It is situated near the city of Kakhovka, which is in the Kherson Oblast region of Ukraine. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The Kakhovka Dam is one of the largest dams in Europe, known for its impressive size and capacity. It is approximately 17.3 kilometers long and has a maximum height of about 51 meters. The reservoir created by the dam has a capacity of around 2.27 billion cubic meters of water. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• Construction: The construction of the Kakhovka Dam began in 1950 and was completed in 1956. It was a significant engineering feat of the Soviet Union during that time.
• Purpose: The primary purpose of the Kakhovka Dam is water management, including flood control and irrigation. It helps regulate the flow of the Dnieper River and provides water for agricultural needs in the surrounding areas.
• The Dnieper River is one of the major rivers in Eastern Europe, flowing through Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine. It spans a length of approximately 2,290 kilometers, making it the fourth longest river in Europe. The river serves as an important waterway for transportation and a source of water for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. It has played a significant role in the history, culture, and economy of the regions it traverses, providing scenic landscapes and supporting diverse ecosystems along its course.

Explanation:

• AUKUS is an acronym that stands for the Australia-United Kingdom-United States Security Pact. It is a trilateral defense partnership between Australia, the United Kingdom, and the United States. AUKUS was announced in September 2021 and aims to strengthen cooperation and collaboration in the areas of defense and security. One of the key developments under AUKUS is the agreement to share nuclear submarine technology between the United States and the United Kingdom with Australia. This partnership is intended to enhance regional security, strengthen defense capabilities, and promote stability in the Indo-Pacific region.

Explanation:

• The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a statutory body in India. The term "statutory" means that the UGC is established and governed by an act of Parliament, namely the University Grants Commission Act of 1956. This act defines the powers, functions, and structure of the UGC. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The establishment of the University Grants Commission (UGC) in 1956 marked a significant milestone in the development of higher education in India. The UGC was created through the enactment of the UGC Act of 1956, which defined its roles, functions, and powers. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) in India operates under the Ministry of Education. The Ministry of Education is responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to education in India, including higher education. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• Regulatory Authority: The UGC is the apex body responsible for the coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of university education in India.
• Grants and Recognition: The UGC grants recognition to universities and provides financial assistance to them. It evaluates and monitors the performance of universities and colleges to ensure compliance with quality standards.
• Funding Research: The UGC provides funds for research projects, including major and minor research projects, to promote research and innovation in various disciplines.
• NET/SLET Examination: The UGC conducts the National Eligibility Test (NET) and State Eligibility Test (SLET) to determine the eligibility of candidates for the post of Assistant Professor and for the award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF).
• Academic Curriculum: The UGC provides guidelines for the development of academic curriculum and syllabi in universities and colleges. It promotes interdisciplinary studies and encourages innovation in curriculum design.

Explanation:

• Graphene's unique properties, such as its high surface area and electrical conductivity, make it an excellent material for sensing and detecting environmental pollutants. Graphene-based sensors can be used to detect various gases, liquids, and contaminants in the environment, including air and water pollution. These sensors offer high sensitivity, fast response times, and the potential for miniaturization, making them valuable in environmental monitoring and pollution control efforts. Thus, option (a) is correct.
• Graphene's exceptional electrical conductivity, flexibility, and transparency make it an ideal candidate for use in flexible and transparent displays. Graphene-based materials can be incorporated into electronic displays, such as smartphones and wearable devices, to improve their flexibility, durability, and energy efficiency. Graphene's transparency allows for clear and vibrant display quality, while its conductivity enables efficient electronic performance in these devices. Thus, option (b) is correct.
• Graphene's atomic structure and exceptional properties make it an attractive material for water filtration systems, including desalination processes. Graphene membranes can effectively filter out salts and impurities from seawater, converting it into fresh water for drinking and agricultural purposes. Graphene's high permeability, chemical resistance, and mechanical strength make it a promising material for improving the efficiency and affordability of desalination technologies. Thus, option (c) is correct.
• Graphene is not commonly used as a direct substitute for natural rubber in tire manufacturing. While graphene does offer exceptional mechanical properties, such as strength and flexibility, its incorporation into tire manufacturing is not widespread. The tire industry primarily relies on specialized rubber compounds and other materials for tire production, considering factors such as wear resistance, traction, and overall performance. While graphene-enhanced tire compounds have been explored in research and development, their widespread commercial adoption has not been realized yet. Thus, option (d) is not correct.
• Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a two-dimensional lattice. It is the thinnest, strongest, and most conductive material known. Graphene exhibits remarkable properties such as high electrical and thermal conductivity, mechanical strength, and flexibility. It has potential applications in various fields, including electronics, energy storage, sensors, water filtration, and biomedical devices. Graphene's unique properties make it a promising material for advancements in technology and innovation, with the potential to revolutionize industries and contribute to the development of more efficient and sustainable solutions.