Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 07 to 12 August, 2023

EXPLANATION: 

The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a complex system of ocean currents that play a crucial role in circulating water within the Atlantic Ocean. 

• The AMOC is a vast network of ocean currents that functions akin to a conveyor belt, influenced by temperature and salt variations, which determine water density. 

• Warm water moves towards the north and cools, leading to evaporation that raises the salt concentration. Cold water with high salt content becomes denser and sinks deep into the ocean. 

• This cold, dense water then gradually extends southward beneath the surface, spanning several kilometers. Eventually, it resurfaces, warms up through "upwelling," and thus completes the circulation cycle. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

• This circulation process holds a dual significance: it distributes warmth to various parts of the world while also transporting essential nutrients required for marine life sustainability. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• The circulation cycle, encompassing both AMOC and the global conveyor belt, occurs at a slow pace. It takes approximately 1,000 years for a parcel of water to traverse the entire belt. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
• As per recent research published in Nature Communications, there are new findings indicating that the Atlantic meridional overturning circulation (AMOC) might potentially collapse within the coming decades. 
• This collapse could lead to intensified and more extreme European weather conditions.

EXPLANATION:

The National Commission for Women (NCW) was formed under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, by the Union Government.

Composition of the Commission

• Chairperson and five Members appointed by the Union Government
• Members include experts from various domains like law, trade unionism, management, women's organizations, administration, etc.
• Inclusion of at least one Member from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 

Term of Office

• The tenure for Chairperson and Members does not exceed three years, determined by the Union Government.
• Members have the option to resign by informing the Union Government in writing.

Conditions of Service

• The terms and conditions of service for both Chairperson and Members are decided by the Union Government.  Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 

Key Functions of NCW

• Investigate and analyze the implementation of safeguards for women as stipulated by laws and the Constitution.
• Regularly submit reports to the Central Government about the functioning of these safeguards.
• Recommend legislative actions to enhance the status and well-being of women.
• Review and propose amendments to laws impacting women's rights.
• Address cases of women's rights violations by engaging with appropriate authorities.
• Undertake specialized studies on discrimination and suggest strategies to combat it.
• Evaluate the progress of women at both Union and State levels.
• Inspect correctional facilities, remand homes, and women's institutions, and recommend corrective measures.
• Periodically submit reports to the Government on matters pertaining to women.
• NCW possesses civil court powers for carrying out investigations.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS), known as UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik), was introduced by the Government of India as a part of the National Civil Aviation Policy in 2016. Recently, the scheme marked its fifth anniversary. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• The primary objective of the scheme, set to operate from 2016 to 2026, is to enhance air connectivity to un-served and underserved airports, both by reviving existing airports and air strips.
• The scheme aims to democratize air travel by improving air connectivity for tier-2 and tier-3 cities and subsidizing airfare on these routes.
• Routes are allocated through a competitive bidding process, with winning airlines receiving incentives and viability gap funding, which amounts to 50% of the seating capacity on their aircraft. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• In return, airlines offer 50% of their seats at a fixed rate of Rs. 2,500 per hour of flight to make air travel affordable.
• The Airport Authority of India (AAI) is responsible for implementing the scheme. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

The Resource Efficiency Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) was launched on the sidelines of the 4th G-20 Environment and Climate Sustainability Working Group (ECSWG) and Environment and Climate Ministers’ meeting in Chennai. The coalition aims to promote resource efficiency and circular economy practices in the G-20 countries. Thus, option (b) is correct. 

About RECEIC

• The Coalition, conceptualized by India’s G20 Presidency, is expected to be an industry-driven and self-sustaining initiative that will continue to function even after India’s G20 Presidency ends.
• The coalition comprises “39 original members representing 11 different countries.” The main purpose of RECEIC is to serve as a platform for exchanging knowledge and best practices, encouraging sustainable approaches within its participating industries. 
• The fundamental principles of RECEIC center on 
  • fostering impactful partnerships
  • promoting technology cooperation
  • enabling financial scalability

• Their aim is to tackle environmental issues arising from waste, encompassing areas such as plastics, microplastics, e-waste, and chemical waste.
• The launch of RECEIC included the signing of the foundational charter and the unveiling of the coalition’s logo. Dignitaries from seven countries, including Mauritius, Denmark, Italy, Canada, UAE, France, and the European Union, participated in the event.

EXPLANATION: 

Hybrid Vehicles

• A hybrid vehicle is a type of vehicle that uses two or more distinct types of power, such as an electric motor and an internal combustion engine. 
• Hybrids offer improved fuel efficiency through the electrification of the powertrain. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• They do not require a charging infrastructure base like battery electric vehicles (BEVs). Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Hybrid vehicles facilitate the manufacture of the battery ecosystem, which can be leveraged for a BEV push.
• Hybrid vehicles still rely on Li-ion batteries, which pose environmental concerns.

Plug-In Hybrid Electric Vehicle

• A plug-in hybrid electric vehicle (PHEV) is a type of hybrid vehicle that has a battery that can be plugged into an external power source to charge. 
• The battery can power the vehicle for a limited distance, after which the gasoline engine kicks in.
• PHEVs offer the best of both worlds, as they can provide the benefits of an electric vehicle for short trips, while also having the range of a gasoline-powered vehicle for longer trips. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• South Korean researchers recently published two papers online, describing the development of a new material called LK-99. According to their findings, LK-99 can exhibit superconductivity at room temperatures. Thus, option (d) is correct. 
• The researchers claim that LK-99 can be created by baking a combination of minerals, specifically lanarkite (Pb2SO4) and copper phosphide.
• Remarkably, this material shows key superconducting properties even under normal air pressure and at temperatures as high as 127 degrees Celsius. 
• The researchers have proposed a possible explanation for how LK-99 achieves room-temperature superconductivity, but they haven’t yet presented solid experimental proof to substantiate their assertions.

About Superconductivity

• Superconductivity is a state in which a material exhibits almost no resistance to the flow of electric current. Electric current involves the movement of charged particles, usually electrons, which interact with atoms in the material as they move.
• Potential Benefits of Superconductivity
  • Improved power transmission
  • More efficient motors and generators
  • Maglev transportation
  • MRI and NMR imaging
  • Cryogenics

EXPLANATION:

The Rajya Sabha recently approved the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation Amendment) Bill, 2023. The Bill amends the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.  The Act regulates the mining sector of India. The Bill expands the private sector role in mining atomic minerals.

Key Highlights of the Bill– 

• Opening Up Atomic Minerals for Private Sector: 
• • • The current law limits the exploration of certain atomic minerals like lithium, beryllium, niobium, titanium, tantalum, and zirconium to State agencies. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
    • However, a proposed Bill aims to change this restriction, allowing private companies to mine six out of the 12 atomic minerals.

• Broadening Central Government's Authority:

• • • The Act requires state governments to hold concession auctions, except in certain circumstances
    • Once this Bill is enacted into law, it will grant the central government the power to conduct auctions for mining leases and composite licenses for critical minerals such as gold, silver, copper, zinc, lead, and nickel. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 

• Streamlined Exploration License Process:

• • • The procedure for obtaining an exploration license will involve competitive bidding through the state government. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
    • The central government will establish clear rules outlining the entire auction process, including terms, conditions, and bidding parameters for these exploration licenses. 

• Changes in Permissible Activity Areas:

• • • Currently, a prospecting license allows activities within an area of up to 25 square kilometers. Similarly, a single reconnaissance permit covers a vast area of up to 5,000 square kilometers. 
    • However, the new Bill allows activities under a single exploration license within a reduced area of up to 1,000 square kilometers. 
    • After three years, the licensee will have the option to keep 25% of the initially authorized area.

• Incentives for Exploration Licensees:

• • Upon discovering valuable resources, the state government must hold a mining lease auction within six months of the licensee's report. 
  • The licensee will then receive a share of the auction value from leasing the mining rights for the discovered mineral.

EXPLANATION: 

Meta India, and the initiative known as INDIAai, operating under the Digital India Corporation, have joined hands through a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to enhance cooperation in the realm of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Emerging Technologies. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 

Understanding INDIAai: 

• INDIAai is a collaborative effort involving the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), and NASSCOM. 
• It serves as a multifaceted initiative encompassing a knowledge portal, research platform, and ecosystem-building endeavor with a focus on preparing India for a future driven by AI. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 

Key Objectives of the MoU:

• Establishing a Cooperation Framework: The initiative aims to establish a structure of cooperation wherein Meta's open-source AI models are made accessible for use within India's AI ecosystem.
• Advancing Research and Development: INDIAai strives to push the boundaries of AI and Emerging Technologies research, with an emphasis on achieving breakthroughs in technology and its practical applications.
• Creating a Centre of Excellence: A Center of Excellence will be established to foster the growth of AI and other Emerging Technologies startups, nurturing a thriving ecosystem.
• Enriching Indian Language Datasets: The initiative seeks to compile datasets in Indian languages to facilitate translation and the development of extensive language models. It places special importance on underrepresented languages to enhance social inclusivity and government service delivery.
• Improving Accessibility to AI Resources: INDIAai is committed to improving access to AI compute resources for researchers, startups, and entities with limited resources, facilitating innovation and growth.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Western Tragopan (Tragopan melanocephalus) stands out as one of the most exceptionally rare pheasant species in existence. Its designation as the State Bird of Himachal Pradesh since 2007. It is classified as Vulnerable by the IUCN.
• Habitat: This species thrives exclusively within the northwest Himalayan region, encompassing a narrow expanse stretching from northern Pakistan across Jammu and Kashmir to Himachal Pradesh, and further into the western part of Garhwal.  Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• In terms of sustenance, the Western Tragopan primarily feeds on plant material, supplemented by insects and other small creatures. While nesting habits are similar to other pheasants, finding residence on the ground or in trees, it prefers solitary or paired tree roosting.Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Western Tragopan is threatened by habitat loss and anthropogenic disturbances such as livestock grazing, minor forest produce collection such as medicinal herbs, and changes in land-use practices.
• The Himachal Pradesh Forest Department's wildlife wing, the Himachal Pradesh Zoo and Conservation Breeding Society, and the Sarahan wildlife division have been working to conserve and reintroduce this rare and endangered species into its natural habitat.

EXPLANATION:

• In Niger, the recent military coup has resulted in the apprehension of President Mohamed Bazoum. The orchestrators of the coup have designated General Abdourahamane Tchiani as the new leader, citing concerns about security due to the ongoing jihadist violence.
• Niger is the largest landlocked country in West Africa. Its neighboring nations include Libya to the northeast, Chad to the east, Nigeria to the south, Benin and Burkina Faso to the southwest, Mali to the west, and Algeria to the northwest. Thus, option (c) is correct. 
• Niamey is Niger's capital. Although French is the official language, Hausa, Zarma, and Songhai are also widely spoken.
• Over 80% of Niger's landmass is located within the Sahara Desert, particularly in the Sahel Region. This arid landscape poses unique challenges to the nation's development and stability.
• Niger has a history marked by various coups, adding complexity to its political landscape. Additionally, its strategic position in the Sahel region, known for its susceptibility to security concerns, warrants careful global attention.

EXPLANATION: 

Recently, the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021 has been passed in the both houses of Parliament. The Bill amends the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 to simplify compliance requirements for domestic companies.

Approval and Access to Biological Resources:

• The Act mandates that certain entities and individuals, such as non-citizens, non-resident citizens must seek clearance from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) before accessing biological resources or submitting Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) applications.
• The Bill broadens the definition of entities requiring clearance to include 'foreign-controlled' companies registered in India under the Companies Act, 2013. 

Exempting AYUSH Practitioners:

• The bill aims to provide an exemption for registered AYUSH medical practitioners and individuals accessing documented traditional knowledge, among other categories, from the requirement of notifying State biodiversity boards in advance when accessing biological resources. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 

Benefit Sharing:

• The Act mandates the NBA to outline benefit sharing conditions for varied approvals, compelling applicants to provide both monetary and non-monetary benefits to benefit claimants and local communities. 
• The Act extends these provisions to research, commercial utilization, and bio-survey/bio-utilization for specific entities. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 
• The Bill, on the other hand, excludes their application from research and bio-survey/bio-utilization.

Criminal Penalties:

• Under the Act, criminal penalties, including imprisonment, were imposed for offenses such as not obtaining approval or intimation for specific activities.
• The Amendment Bill decriminalizes these offenses and replaces them with fines ranging from one lakh to fifty lakh rupees. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The motion for adjournment of the business of the Lok Sabha is moved with the Speaker's consent. Its purpose is to bring the House's attention to a specific matter of urgent public importance. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Considered an extraordinary parliamentary tool, it disrupts regular House proceedings.
• At least 50 members' support is needed for the motion to be admitted. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Notice must be given before 10 am to the Lok Sabha Secretary-General. This provision is not available in the Rajya Sabha. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• Discussion Duration: The discussion on this motion must last for a minimum of two hours and thirty minutes.
• Role of the Speaker: The Speaker ensures adequate debate on the matter. After satisfactory debate, the Speaker can put up a question.
• There are certain restrictions on moving the adjournment motion:
  • The matter raised should be clear, factual, urgent, and of public importance.
  • Only one matter can be addressed; multiple matters aren't allowed.
  • The focus should be on a recent occurrence.
  • Matters under court adjudication are excluded.
  • Questions of privilege can't be raised.
  • Topics previously discussed in the same session can't be revived.
  • Questions that can be raised on separate motions are not permitted.
• Outcome of the Motion: The passage of an adjournment motion doesn't necessitate the government's resignation. However, it is considered a strong censure of the government's actions.