Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 08 to 13 April 2024

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, on 26 March 2024, the International Labor Organization (ILO) and the Institute for Human Development (IHD) jointly published a report named India Employment Report 2024.
• According to the India Employment Report 2024, a total of 83% of the unemployed youth looking for work in India are unemployed. The proportion of educated young individuals among the overall unemployed population rose from 54.2% in 2000 to 65.7% in 2022. Among educated unemployed youths, women constituted a higher percentage (76.7%) than men (62.2%). These findings suggest a growing concentration of unemployment among youth, particularly educated individuals and women residing in urban areas within India. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The Institute of Human Development (IHD) was established in the year 1998 under the aegis of the Indian Society of Labor Economics (ISLE). Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• India Employment Report 2024 is the third edition in a series of regular publications by the Human Development Institute on labour and employment issues, jointly released/published in partnership with the International Labor Organization (ILO). Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• One of the most important features of the Indian labour market is the slow and steady transition of the workforce from agricultural to non-agricultural sectors. Thus, statement 4 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) nations incorporates a clause empowering India to retract tariff concessions should the anticipated investment targets fail to materialise. This provision is designed to ensure that the agreement fosters mutual growth and advantages for both sides. TEPA outlines a goal of attracting $100 billion in investments into India from EFTA countries, resulting in the creation of one million jobs over a 15-year span. Additionally, it grants India the authority to withdraw its tariff concessions if the anticipated investment fails to materialise. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• Gold imports from EFTA countries to India are not subject to tariff concessions under TEPA. The agreement primarily focuses on enhancing trade in goods and services, safeguarding intellectual property rights, and fostering investment. Notably, gold, which constitutes 80% of merchandise imports from EFTA nations, along with dairy, soy, coal, and certain sensitive agricultural products, have been excluded from India's list of tariff concessions. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• According to the Punchhi Commission, the President should appoint the Governor after consultation with the Chief Minister of the concerned state. It recommended removing the phrase 'during the pleasure of the President' from the Constitution, according to which the Governor can be removed at the will of the Central Government. Thus,  statement 1 is correct,
• The Punchhi Commission also suggested that the Governor should be removed from his post only by a resolution of the state legislature, which would ensure greater stability and autonomy for any state in India.
• According to the Sarkaria Commission, the process of appointment of governors in India should be entrusted to a committee, which should include the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chief Minister of the concerned state. The Governor must be a person of eminence in some field of public life and must not belong to the State to which he is appointed. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The Governor should exercise his discretionary powers in a restrained and judicious manner and should not use them to weaken the democratic process but should use them to strengthen the democratic process of India.
• In India, appointing governors follows constitutional procedures outlined in Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution. The President of India appoints governors for each state, acting on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. Typically, governors are individuals with distinguished public service backgrounds, including retired civil servants, judges, or prominent politicians. Their roles encompass various responsibilities, including safeguarding the Constitution, overseeing state administrations, and acting as the link between the central government and the states.  Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• In India, the Governor possesses limited powers regarding legislative bills. While a Money Bill cannot be returned to the State Legislature by the Governor, they retain the authority to send back any other type of bill or a bill accompanied by a message requesting reconsideration of specific provisions. This distinction safeguards the financial prerogatives of the State Legislature, ensuring that Money Bills, which pertain exclusively to financial matters, proceed without the governor’s interference. However, the Governor's ability to request reconsideration underscores their role as a constitutional check on legislative decisions, promoting thorough deliberation and adherence to constitutional principles. Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• Scientists have recently suggested the formal establishment of an 'Anthropocene Epoch' within the geological time scale, sparking various discussions. The proposal, aimed at recognising the Anthropocene Epoch officially, originates from the Anthropocene Working Group of the Sub-commission of Quaternary Stratigraphy (SQS-AWG). According to the proposal, the commencement of this epoch could be associated with the formation of a specific geological layer. 
• The Holocene epoch, commencing approximately 11,700 years ago, is characterised by a relatively stable climate conducive to the advancement of human civilisation. Throughout this epoch, human societies globally experienced growth and expansion. The Earth's consistent climate during this period provided an optimal environment for agricultural practices, settlement, and other endeavours that facilitated the emergence of civilisations. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• In contrast, the Anthropocene epoch stands apart from the Holocene epoch primarily due to its emphasis on the substantial impact of human activities on the Earth's systems. The concept of the Anthropocene contends that human actions, including industrialisation, deforestation, and large-scale agriculture, have become the primary force driving changes in the planet's climate, geology, and ecosystems. This distinguishes the Anthropocene from the Holocene, characterised by more gradual alterations in Earth's climate and biodiversity. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• The headquarters of the United Nations Security Council is not located in Washington, D.C., but in New York City, United States of America. The United Nations Headquarters, where the Security Council convenes, is situated in Manhattan, New York. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Security Council has five permanent members – the United States, China, France, Russia, and the United Kingdom (UK) – collectively known as the P5. They hold permanent seats and possess the power of veto.  This authority allows each P5 member to block any substantive resolution put forth by the council. Non-permanent members, elected for limited terms, lack this veto power. This power allows each of the five permanent members to block any substantive resolution, including those related to the admission of new members, the establishment of peacekeeping operations, and the imposition of sanctions. Thus, statement 2 and statement 4 are correct.
•  it was established on June 26, 1945, following the ratification of the United Nations Charter by the majority of its signatories. The formation of the Security Council was a pivotal aspect of the creation of the United Nations, aiming to prevent future global conflicts and promote international cooperation. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The United Nations Security Council originally had only 11 member countries, which was expanded in the year 1965 into an international organisation with members from 15 countries.

EXPLANATION:

• According to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), nations possess exclusive rights to utilise resources within their Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), extending up to 200 nautical miles from their coastlines. This encompasses the exploration and exploitation of both living and non-living resources, including the seabed beneath. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• As of now, no nation has engaged in commercial extraction of resources from the open oceans or the international seabed area. Despite exploration efforts and research initiatives directed towards deep-sea mining, widespread commercial extraction has yet to be initiated due to technological, environmental, and regulatory complexities. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The International Seabed Authority (ISBA) is tasked with governing and regulating the exploration and exploitation of marine minerals in the international seabed area, which falls beyond national jurisdictions. However, ISBA does not enforce national regulations within the territorial waters of individual countries, as each nation is responsible for managing its own resources within its EEZ. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• The Minimum Support Price (MSP) doesn't signify the absolute minimum price at which farmers are obligated to sell their crops. Rather, it serves as a reference price established by the government to guarantee farmers a certain level of income. When market prices fall below the MSP, the government intervenes by purchasing the crops from farmers at the MSP to provide them with support. It's important to note that MSP is not legally mandated as the minimum price. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Annually, the MSP is announced for 23 crops encompassing both the kharif and rabi seasons, well in advance of sowing. Among these crops, 21 are food crops, including paddy, wheat, maize, pulses, oilseeds, and some other cash crops. The MSP system has played a pivotal role in upholding food security in India by offering a secure price for farmers, thus encouraging the production of essential staple crops like rice and wheat, which in turn ensures an ample domestic food supply. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• However, only a small fraction, approximately 6% of farmers, primarily those engaged in cultivating paddy and wheat in states such as Punjab, reap benefits from the MSP. The majority of transactions involving these crucial food commodities take place below the Minimum Support Price (MSP), making farming financially unsustainable for most producers in India. Consequently, farmers find themselves ensnared in a perilous cycle of producing crops that often go unsold, resulting in overwhelming debt and, tragically, instances of suicide. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Ballistic missiles deviate from flying at low altitudes or pursuing a flat and level trajectory. Instead, they adhere to a parabolic or ballistic trajectory, which entails launching at a high altitude and subsequently descending towards the target. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The technology of Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs) can serve to circumvent defences against ballistic missiles. MIRVs enable a single missile to transport and deploy numerous warheads, each capable of striking distinct targets. This complexity makes it more difficult for missile defence systems to intercept and neutralise all incoming warheads. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• India's Agni-5 missile represents the longest-range missile tested thus far, boasting an estimated range exceeding 7,000 kilometres. Initially tested in 2012, this solid-fueled, three-staged missile incorporates MIRV technology, which India recently successfully tested. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• It is a bilateral tri-service Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise between India and the US. The exercise aimed to develop interoperability for conducting HADR operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries.
• Personnel from both navies participated in Training Visits, Subject Matter Expert Exchanges, Sports Events, and Social interactions. Upon completion of the Harbour Phase, the ships, with the troops embarked, sailed for the Sea Phase and undertook Maritime, Amphibious, and HADR operations in accordance with injected situations.
• Indian Navy Ships with integral helicopters and landing crafts embarked, Indian Navy aircraft, Indian Army personnel and vehicles, and Indian Air Force aircraft and helicopters, along with the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) participated in the exercise. Thus, option C is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Critical Minerals play a vital role in the manufacturing of advanced technological items such as smartphones, electric vehicles, and renewable energy technologies, owing to their unique characteristics essential for diverse applications. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• While iron ore holds significance for numerous industrial and construction purposes, it typically does not fall under the category of critical minerals. Critical minerals generally encompass rare earth elements, precious metals, and other materials that are less abundant and more challenging to obtain. Examples of critical minerals comprise lithium, cobalt, rare earth elements, and platinum group metals. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The International Energy Agency (IEA) is actively involved in identifying and addressing issues pertaining to critical minerals. Recognising their pivotal role in transitioning towards clean energy, the IEA emphasises the importance of ensuring a sustainable and secure supply of critical minerals. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.