Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 18 to 23 September, 2023

EXPLANATION: 

• Scientists at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) have achieved a significant breakthrough in cancer research by pioneering a novel approach for identifying and eradicating cancer cells.
• The research team has ingeniously crafted hybrid nanoparticles. These nanoparticles combine gold and copper sulfide elements, harnessing their unique attributes to eradicate cancer cells through heat generation while simultaneously facilitating their detection via sound waves. Thus, option (b) is correct. 
• These hybrid nanoparticles boast impressive characteristics, including photothermal, oxidative stress-inducing, and photoacoustic properties.
• When exposed to light, these nanoparticles effectively absorb it, generating heat that efficiently destroys cancer cells. 
• Additionally, they produce toxic singlet oxygen atoms, which further contribute to the obliteration of cancerous cells.
• These nanoparticles can absorb light and generate ultrasound waves, greatly enhancing the capacity for detecting cancer cells with exceptional contrast. 
• This feature has the potential to significantly improve the precision of cancer diagnosis, as sound waves exhibit less scattering than light when traversing through tissues. Consequently, this results in clearer images and more accurate oxygen saturation measurements within tumours.

EXPLANATION: 

• Gene drive is a prominent genetic modification strategy employed by scientists globally. Its primary objective is to manipulate the inheritance of genes, departing from the conventional principles of Mendelian genetics. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• In essence, gene drive technology represents a form of genetic engineering that deviates from the typical rules of heredity. It significantly enhances the probability that a specific set of genes will be transmitted to successive generations, facilitating the rapid dissemination of these genes throughout a population, even against the forces of natural selection. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Gene-drive technology focuses on increasing the diversity of genes within a population. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• This groundbreaking concept was conceived by Austin Burt, a professor at Imperial College London, in a 2003 paper published in the Royal Society Proceedings. 
• Mechanism: Gene drives operate through a directed repair gene editing mechanism. This process allows for inserting a novel gene, called the "driven gene," at a precise location by utilizing a donor template. 
• Benefits: 

• • • Disease Prevention: Gene-driven technology has the potential to play a crucial role in disease prevention. 
    • Addressing Invasive Species: It offers a promising avenue to tackle the challenges of invasive species. 

• Concerns/Issues: 

• • Ecological Impact: A significant reduction in mosquito populations, achieved through gene drive technology, could disrupt food chains and ecosystems that rely on mosquitoes. 
  • Unintended Consequences: There is a risk of unforeseen ecological disruptions resulting from the deployment of gene drives.
  • Genetic Spread: Engineered genes have the potential to spread beyond their intended target mosquito populations, raising concerns about unintended genetic consequences.

EXPLANATION:

• The Matsya 6000, a three-person submersible, is designed to reach depths of 6,000 meters beneath the ocean's surface. This vessel, named after the Hindi word for 'fish,' is currently in development by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) in Chennai. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• Constructed from an 80mm-thick titanium alloy, the Matsya 6000 can endure pressures 600 times greater than those at sea level. It is worth noting that titanium is an essential material in all global research missions due to its exceptional properties. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Operational capabilities include continuous operation for 12 to 16 hours and an onboard oxygen supply lasting up to 96 hours. The submersible has an ultra-short baseline acoustic positioning system (USBL), enabling communication with the mothership. This system allows the mothership to track the submersible's location.
• Anticipated trials for the Matsya 6000 are scheduled for 2024 in the Bay of Bengal. This submersible is a pivotal component of India's Samudrayaan project, dedicated to exploring the deep sea. The Samudrayaan project is part of India's Deep Ocean Mission, with a budget of Rs 4,077 crore.
• Only five nations—France, the US, China, Russia, and Japan—have successfully developed manned submersibles. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Nipah virus is a zoonotic disease, indicating its transmission from animals to humans. The causative agent of Nipah Virus encephalitis is an RNA virus belonging to the Paramyxoviridae family, Henipavirus genus, and it shares a close genetic relationship with the Hendra virus. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• Vectors: The Nipah Virus was initially observed in domestic pigs and has since been detected in various domestic animal species, including dogs, cats, goats, horses, and sheep. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• Transmission: The disease spreads through fruit bats, also known as 'flying foxes,' specifically those belonging to the Pteropus genus, which are natural reservoir hosts for both Nipah and Hendra viruses. The virus can be found in bat urine and potentially in bat faeces, saliva, and birthing fluids. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• Symptoms: In humans, Nipah virus infection manifests as an encephalitic syndrome characterized by symptoms such as fever, headache, drowsiness, disorientation, mental confusion, and coma, and can ultimately result in death.
• Vaccines and Treatment: No vaccines are currently available for humans or animals against the Nipah virus. Treatment primarily involves providing intensive supportive care to individuals infected with the virus. Thus, statement 4 is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Planetary Boundaries refer to a concept that identifies and defines a set of critical environmental and ecological thresholds within which humanity can safely operate to maintain a stable and sustainable global environment. 
• These boundaries represent the limits or "boundaries" beyond which human activities could disrupt the Earth's natural systems, leading to abrupt and irreversible environmental changes.
• The concept of Planetary Boundaries was first introduced in a 2009 paper by Johan Rockström and a group of scientists. It aims to highlight the interconnected nature of Earth's systems and the need for global cooperation to avoid crossing these boundaries, which could result in catastrophic consequences for the planet and its ability to support human civilization. Thus, option (d) is correct. 
• Nine planetary boundaries

• • Stratospheric ozone depletion
  • Loss of biosphere integrity
  • Chemical pollution and the release of novel entities
  • Climate Change
  • Ocean acidification
  • Freshwater consumption and the global hydrological cycle
  • Land system change
  • Biogeochemical flows 
  • Ocean acidification
  • Atmospheric aerosol pollution
  • Release of novel chemicals

EXPLANATION:

• The Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) is an annual international forum in Vladivostok, Russia. Its main objective is to promote foreign investment in the Russian Far East region. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The forum serves as a platform for economic, political, and cultural discussions between Asia Pacific countries and Russia. It brings together various stakeholders, including representatives from Asia Pacific regions, ASEAN, and countries like Afghanistan, India, Russia, and Iran. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• The Russian Government and the Roscongress Foundation organize the EEF. It aims to establish and strengthen ties within the Russian and global investment communities. 
• The forum provides an opportunity for a comprehensive expert evaluation of the economic potential of the Russian Far East, investment opportunities, and business conditions within advanced special economic zones.
• The forum features a plenary session where leaders discuss the Far East region's economic, social, and cultural development and outline future goals.
• India has actively participated in the Eastern Economic Forum. In the 8th EEF in 2023, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal, the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush, represented India. 
• One significant proposed initiative is the Vladivostok-Chennai Maritime Corridor, which involves a sea route spanning approximately 5,600 nautical miles (10,300 km).
• This corridor aims to boost bilateral trade between India and Russia by connecting the eastern port cities of both countries. The proposed route crosses the Sea of Japan, East and South China Sea, passes through the Malacca Strait, and ultimately reaches the Bay of Bengal. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is a collaborative project involving India, the UAE, Saudi Arabia, the European Union, France, Italy, Germany, and the US. 
• Its primary objective is to facilitate increased trade among the participating countries, focusing on energy products. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• The IMEC consists of two main corridors:
  • The Eastern Corridor connects India with the Gulf region, while the Northern Corridor connects the Gulf region to Europe. 
  • A comprehensive network of railway and ship-rail transit systems and road transport routes will support these corridors. Thus, statement 2 is not correct, and statement 3 is correct. 
• To ensure seamless connectivity and exchange, the corridor will incorporate various infrastructure components. This includes a rail link, an electricity cable, a hydrogen pipeline, and a high-speed data cable. The integration of these elements will enhance economic integration between India, West Asia, and Europe in the long term. 
• The significance of the IMEC lies in its potential to increase prosperity among the participating countries by promoting the flow of energy and digital communications. 
• The rail and shipping corridor is part of the broader Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment (PGII) initiative. This initiative is a collaborative effort by the G7 nations to fund infrastructure projects in developing countries.

EXPLANATION:

Calamity Relief Fund (CRF)

• The Calamity Relief Fund (CRF) is a fund maintained by the state governments of India to provide immediate relief to victims of natural disasters such as cyclones, droughts, earthquakes, floods, and landslides. 
• A combination of state and central government contributions funds the CRF. The central government contributes 75% of the CRF, while the state government contributes 25%. Thus, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 

National Calamity Contingency Fund (NCCF)

• The National Calamity Contingency Fund (NCCF) is a fund maintained by the central government of India to provide additional assistance to state governments in the event of a major disaster. 
• The NCCF is funded by a cess levied on certain goods and services,  funded 100% by the Centre. Thus, pair 2 is correctly matched. 

National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)

• It is established by Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act of 2005, and it supplements a State's SDRF in the event of a catastrophic disaster if appropriate funds are not available in the SDRF.
• It is funded solely by the central government. Thus, pair 3 is correctly matched. 

State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)

• The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) is a fund maintained by the state governments of India to supplement the CRF in the event of a major disaster. 
• The SDRF is funded by state and central government contributions. The central government contributes 75% of the SDRF, while the state government contributes 25%. 
• The SDRF shall only be used to cover the costs of providing urgent help to victims. Thus, pair 4 is correctly matched. 

Note: With effect from April 1, 2010, the CRF and NCCF were amalgamated into the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) and National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) and ceased to function.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Red Sea trade route during the Roman era was significant in connecting India's subcontinent with the Roman Empire. Historians have acknowledged the existence of trade between Rome and India in antiquity, and excavations at Arikamedu near modern-day Pondicherry have confirmed this trade during the 1st century CE. 
• Recent findings suggest that customs taxes from Red Sea trade with India, Persia, and Ethiopia contributed to one-third of the Roman exchequer's income. The Muziris Papyrus, a document authored by an Alexandria-based Egypto-Roman financier, reveals an import tax exceeding two million sesterces on cargo valued at almost nine million sesterces. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• Additionally, by the 1st century CE, Indian imports into Egypt may have exceeded a billion sesterces annually, significantly contributing to the Roman Empire's finances. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• The exchange of various commodities fueled the Red Sea trade route. Luxuries from India, such as malabathrum (cinnamon), ivory, pearls, gemstones, and especially pepper, were highly sought after across the Roman Empire. Indian pepper, in particular, became a staple ingredient, featuring in about 80% of the recipes in the Roman cookbook of Apicius. The trade from Rome to India saw the export of gold, creating a trade imbalance and records hinting at Indians developing a taste for Roman wine.
• Contrary to popular belief, the Red Sea trade route held greater historical significance during the Roman era than the Silk Road. In ancient times, the concept of the Silk Road, as we understand it today, did not exist, and there were limited interactions between the regions of China and Europe. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Ayushman Bhav Campaign aims to achieve universal health coverage and ensure healthcare accessibility for all individuals across India. Through the saturation coverage of healthcare schemes, the campaign strives to reach every village and town in the country. 
• The Honourable President of India, Smt, has virtually launched the campaign. Droupadi Murmu, on September 13, 2023. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 

Components of the Campaign: 

• Seva Pakhwada: From September 17 to October 2, 2023, a dedicated period will be observed to ensure every individual receives essential health services. During this period, various initiatives and activities will be undertaken to provide comprehensive healthcare coverage to the population. 
• Ayushman - Apke Dwar 3.0: This campaign aims to provide Ayushman cards to all eligible beneficiaries enrolled under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) scheme. The objective is to enhance access to essential health services by increasing the number of individuals covered by the scheme. 
• Ayushman Melas at HWCs and CHCs: Ayushman Melas will be organized at Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) and Community Health Centres (CHCs). These Melas will facilitate the creation of ABHA IDs (Health IDs) and the issuance of Ayushman Bharat Cards. Additionally, early diagnosis, comprehensive primary healthcare services, teleconsultation with specialists, and appropriate referrals will be provided during these Melas. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Ayushman Sabhas: Ayushman Sabhas will be conducted in every village and panchayat to raise awareness about vital health schemes and disease conditions. These gatherings will also be key in distributing Ayushman cards, generating ABHA IDs, and promoting initiatives such as blood and organ donation drives. 

Expected Outcomes: 

• Increased coverage under the Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana scheme. 
• Creation of ABHA IDs and issuance of Ayushman Bharat Cards. 
• Enhanced awareness about essential health schemes and disease conditions. 
• Facilitating early diagnosis and appropriate referrals for timely treatment.
• Promotion of blood and organ donation awareness. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced immune proteins that can specifically bind to target proteins known as antigens. These antibodies mimic the action of naturally occurring antibodies and stimulate the immune system to target and neutralise disease-causing agents. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The creation of monoclonal antibodies involves the fusion of specific plasma or plasmablast cells with myeloma cells to form hybridoma cells, which can produce large quantities of identical antibodies targeting a specific antigen for various applications.

Applications of Monoclonal antibodies

• Diagnostics: 
  • mAbs can detect specific proteins, bacteria, or viruses in the blood or other bodily fluids. This can be used to diagnose various diseases, including cancer, infectious diseases, and autoimmune diseases. 
• Treatment: 
  • mAbs can be used to treat diseases by targeting specific proteins or cells involved in the disease process. 
  • For example, mAbs are used to treat cancer by targeting tumour cells, and mAbs are used to treat autoimmune diseases by targeting the overactive immune cells causing the disease. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Research: 
  • mAbs are used in various research applications, such as studying the function of proteins, identifying new drug targets, and developing new diagnostic and therapeutic methods.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Committee of Parliament on Official Languages was established in 1976 under Section 4 of The Official Languages Act, 1963. As per Section 4 of the Act, a Committee on Official Language is to be constituted when a resolution is moved in either House of Parliament with the prior sanction of the President and is passed by both Houses. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• According to the provisions of the 1963 Act, the committee submits its report to the President, who then ensures that the report is laid before each House of Parliament and sent to all State Governments. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• The committee's mandate is to review the progress made in using Hindi for official purposes and recommend enhancing its use in official communications. The first report of the Committee was submitted in 1987.
• Chaired by the Union Home Minister, the committee consists of 30 members, including 20 Members of Parliament from Lok Sabha and 10 Members of Parliament from Rajya Sabha. Thus, statement 3 is correct.