Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 25 to 30 March 2024

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the United Nations Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR) released the Global E-waste Monitor 2024, which states that the world’s generation of electronic waste is rising five times faster than documented e-waste recycling. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Key highlights of the report:
  • Global e-waste generation surged from 34 bn kg in 2010 to 62 bn kg in 2022.
  • The projections indicate a further 32% rise by 2030.
  • Only 13.8 bn kg is documented as ‘formally collected and recycled in an environmentally sound manner.
  • Europe (17.6 kg), Oceania (16.1 kg), and the Americas (14.1 kg) had the highest e-waste generation per capita in 2022. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Europe has the highest formal collection and recycling rate at 42.8%, and Africa has struggled with a low recycling rate (<1%) despite generating less e-waste. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • Asia has generated nearly half (30 bn kg) of the world’s e-waste but has limited advances in e-waste management.
  • Microwave ovens, toys,  vacuum cleaners, and e-cigarettes constitute a third (20 bn kg) of global e-waste but have a low global recycling rate of 12%.
  • Small IT and telecommunication equipment, such as laptops, mobile phones, GPS devices, and routers, make up five bn kg of e-waste, with only 22% being formally collected and recycled.
  • Eighty-one countries have implemented e-waste policies, legislation, or regulations, and 67 have legal provisions on Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for e-waste.
  • India is ranked 3rd globally among the largest e-waste generators, following China and the United States, and the volume of e-waste in India surged significantly to 1.6 million tonnes in 2021-22.
  • Sixty-five cities in India generate over 60% of the total e-waste, with ten states contributing to 70% of the total e-waste generated.

EXPLANATION: 

• World Youth Rheumatic Diseases (WORD) Day is an annual event on the 18th of March that emphasises the importance of early detection and awareness regarding rheumatic diseases among young individuals.  
• Rheumatic disease is an umbrella term for arthritis and several other conditions affecting joints, tendons, muscles, ligaments, bones, and muscles. Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis is the most common paediatric rheumatic disorder. It includes different inflammatory arthritis subtypes, posing significant health challenges among children globally.
• The ultimate objective of WORD Day is to raise the awareness and knowledge level of parents, primary practitioners, doctors, teachers, and the general public to help first and foremost in early diagnoses of the disease. 

Hence, option C is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The World Health Organization (WHO) recently released a report titled “Fair Share for Health and Care”, addressing the gender gap in global healthcare. 

The key point of the report:

• • Women comprise 67% of the paid global health and care workforce and perform an estimated 76% of all unpaid care activities, indicating significant gender disparities in paid and unpaid care work.
  • Women in low- or middle-income countries could be USD 9 trillion better off if their pay and access to paid work were equal to men, highlighting the economic potential of gender equality in the workforce.
  • Women are not adequately represented on decision-making tables and are overrepresented in lower-status roles, such as nurses and midwives. Women are underrepresented in leadership roles, with medical specialities dominated by men.
  • Globally, 90% of women’s earnings are directed towards their families’ well-being, compared to 30-40% of men’s.
  • In India, women spend 73% of their total daily working time on unpaid work, compared to men, who pay only 11%. In the UK, nearly 4.5 million people took on unpaid work during Covid-19, with 59% being women.
  • Women in healthcare disproportionately experienced higher levels of gender-based violence. 
  • Hence, option C is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry has notified the Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2024. The rules aim to streamline and simplify the process of obtaining and managing patents by the Patents Act 1970 and to fulfil the goals of the Viksit Bharat Sankalp initiative.

Some key changes introduced under Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2024:

• • The timeline for filing the Request for Examination (RFE) is now reduced from 48 months to 31 months from the priority date. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Applicants can file a single updated Form 3 after receiving the FER.
  • Introduction of ‘Certificate of Inventorship’: To recognise inventors’ contributions to patented inventions.
  • A 10% reduction in renewal fees is provided if paid in advance through electronic mode for at least four years, incentivising timely renewal and electronic payment methods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The frequency of filing statements for the working of patents has been reduced from once a financial year to once every three financial years, reducing administrative burden. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Controller has been granted authority to extend periods specified in the Rules and to condone delays for up to six months.

• Under the Indian Patents Act, inventions related to products, processes, methods, and applications in all fields of technology are patentable, provided they are novel, involve an inventive step, and are capable of industrial application. Patent protection is granted for a limited period, generally 20 years from the application's filing date.

EXPLANATION:

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) recently formed a steering committee to act as the apex decision-making body to create its ambitious ‘Bima Sugam’ online platform. IRDAI envisions Bima Sugam as the UPI moment for the insurance sector, aiming to establish it as the world’s largest online marketplace for insurance products and services. IRDAI is the regulatory body of the Bima Sugam. Bima Sugam is a comprehensive online platform where insurance companies can showcase and sell their products. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct. 
• The platform's primary aim is to promote the universalisation and democratisation of insurance, ensuring the empowerment and protection of policyholders' interests. The overarching vision is to achieve "Insurance for all by 2047," aligning with broader national development goals. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• This platform will help settle claims, whether health coverage or death claims, in a paperless manner based on policy numbers. Bima Sugam will meet all insurance requirements, including life, health, and general insurance (including motor and travel). 
• Life insurance and general insurance companies will own a 47.5% stake each, while brokers and agent bodies will own 2.5% each in the Bima Sugam Platform.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah has indicated that the Centre would revoke AFSPA (Armed Forces Special Powers Act from J&K. In an interview with Gulistan News, Shah said the situation is normal. “We are considering revocation of AFSPA. The government has already drawn a roadmap for the withdrawal of troops and that the process will be initiated after elections,”
• The Act came into force in 1958 in the context of increasing violence in the Northeastern States, which the State governments found difficult to control. The act can be applied only after an area is declared “disturbed” under section 2 of the Act.
• An area can be disturbed due to disputes between members of different languages, racial, religious, or regional groups, castes, or communities. The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory, can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
• Under the Act, the armed forces have been empowered to open fire or kill, enter and search without a warrant, and arrest anyone who has committed a cognisable offence, all while having immunity from being prosecuted. 

Hence, option C is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, meme coins have gained significant popularity in the digital currency space. Meme coins, also known as ‘memetic tokens’ or ‘community coins’, are digital currencies created as satire or humorous tribute to the internet culture. 
• These are a unique category of cryptocurrencies. These coins trace their origin to the growth of meme culture on the internet, and their nature is highly volatile as they are driven by the current buzz surrounding the token. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• These coins leverage blockchain technology, often utilising intelligent contracts on platforms like Ethereum and Solana. It is easier to create a meme coin than traditional cryptocurrencies. Virtually anyone can launch a meme coin with minimal technical expertise and resources. Some famous meme coins are Dogecoin, Shiba Inu, and Retik Finance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, scientists at the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST), Srinagar, reported that altitude and temperature play an essential role in developing mushk budiji aroma.
• It is an indigenous aromatic rice variety usually grown at an altitude ranging from 5000 to 7000 ft above mean sea level in Kashmir valley. The cooked rice is unique and possesses a harmonious blend of taste, aroma and rich organoleptic properties. Mushk Budji rice was granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in August 2023. It is mainly grown in Sagam, Panzgam, and Soaf Shali of district Anantnag and the Beerwah belt of district Budgam. Hence, option C is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently received Bhutan’s highest civilian award, the ‘Order of the Druk Gyalpo’, during his two-day State visit to the neighbouring nation. He is the first foreign Head of the Government to receive the honour.
• It stands as Bhutan’s most esteemed civilian accolade, reserved for individuals who have demonstrated exceptional contributions to society, embodying values of service, integrity, and leadership. Hence, option B is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and the Institute of Human Development (IHD) have jointly published a report titled "India Employment Report 2024". The research is mainly based on data analysis from the National Sample Surveys and Periodic Labour Force Surveys conducted between 2000 and 2022.
• It highlights youth employment challenges within India’s evolving economic, labour market, educational, and skills landscapes. In 2022, India's youth accounted for 83% of the country's total unemployed population, according to the report.
• According to the report, women largely account for the increase in self-employment and unpaid family work. Wages and earnings are stagnant or declining. Youth employment is of poorer quality than employment for adults. Informal employment has risen - around half the jobs in the formal sector are informal.
• Almost 82% of the workforce is engaged in the informal sector, and nearly 90% is informally employed. Self-employment and unpaid family work have also increased, especially for women. Self-employment remains the primary source of employment - 55.8% in 2022. Casual and regular jobs accounted for 22.7% and 21.5% respectively.
• India's female labour force participation rate (LFPR) remains among the world's lowest. Female LFPR declined by 14.4 percentage points (compared to 8.1 percentage points for males) between 2000 and 2019. There is a considerable gender gap — women's LFPR (32.8%) in 2022 was 2.3 times lower than men's (77.2%). India’s low LFPR is primarily attributed to the low female LFPR, which was much lower than the world average of 47.3% in 2022 but higher than the South Asian average of 24.8%, as per ILO data.
• The slow transition towards non-farm employment has been reversed after 2018-19. The share of agriculture in total employment fell to around 42% in 2019 from 60% in 2000. 
• There has been a rise in youth employment, but the quality of work remains a concern, especially for qualified young workers. The unemployment rate among youths was six times greater for those who had completed secondary education or higher (18.4%) and nine times higher for graduates (29.1%) than for persons who could not read or write (3.4%) in 2022.
• Hence, option C is correct.