Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 21 to 26 August, 2023

EXPLANATION:

The New Development Bank (NDB) stands as a multilateral development institution founded by the BRICS nations - Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Its fundamental aim is to gather resources for initiatives related to infrastructure and sustainable development within emerging markets and developing countries (EMDCs).

• Headquarters: Shanghai, China.
• Establishment: Agreed upon by BRICS leaders at the 5th BRICS summit in Durban, South Africa, in 2013. It was officially established in 2014 during the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• Membership: The bank's membership is open to United Nations member countries. 
  • Bangladesh, Uruguay and UAE joined as new members in 2021, while countries like Egypt and Uruguay are prospective members awaiting official membership upon depositing their instrument of accession. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Voting Method: The initial subscribed capital of USD 100 billion was equally divided among the founding members. The allocation of shares for other member countries is determined by the Board of Governors through a special majority vote upon accepting their accession. No country holds veto power in the bank's decisions. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• Observer Status: In 2018, the New Development Bank received observer status in the United Nations General Assembly.
• Prominent undertakings supported by the NDB in India encompass a range of substantial infrastructure initiatives. Notable examples encompass the Mumbai Metro rail, the Delhi-Ghaziabad-Meerut Regional Rapid Transit System, and an array of Renewable Energy projects.

EXPLANATION:

Following Russia's recent exit from the Black Sea grain agreement, the Danube Delta and the Sulina Channel have offered Ukraine an alternative route for its grain transportation.

• The Danube River, the second-longest in Europe after the Volga, has a significant historical, economic, and cultural role across the countries it traverses. 
• Originating in the Black Forest region of Germany near Donaueschingen, it begins as two smaller streams, the Brigach and the Breg, which merge to form the main Danube River. Flowing eastward, it passes through ten countries and eventually empties into the Black Sea.
• Countries: The Danube River flows through or marks the border of ten countries–Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, and Ukraine. Thus, option (c) is correct. 
• Dimensions and Drainage: Stretching approximately 2,850 kilometres, the Danube River ranks as the second-longest river in Europe. Its drainage basin covers a substantial area of about 800,000 square kilometres.

Additional Information: 

Sulina Channel:

• Located in eastern Romania near Sulina, the Sulina Channel links the Danube River with the Black Sea, facilitating direct maritime passage between the river and the sea. 
• Positioned at the mouth of the Danube, Sulina serves as the point of connection. The channel, a distributory of the Danube, spans a total length of 71.7 kilometres.
• The Sulina Channel stands as the primary navigational route for ships journeying between the Danube River and the Black Sea. Its well-maintained and marked path enables ships to navigate the delta area and access the deeper waters of the river.

EXPLANATION:

Jhalkari Bai

• Jhalkari Bai, born in 1830 in Bhojla village near Jhansi, is a lesser-known but legendary Dalit woman warrior who displayed remarkable bravery during the First War of Independence in 1857. Trained in horse riding, weaponry, and combat from a young age, she became a trusted advisor to Rani Lakshmibai. Thus, pair 1 is correctly matched. 
• Jhalkari Bai joined Rani's women's army and took a lead role during the British attack on Jhansi. Disguised as Rani Lakshmibai, she confused the British and enabled the real Rani to escape with her son. Her husband, Puran Kori, fought alongside her but perished in battle. 
• Jhalkari Bai's fate remains disputed, with some sources suggesting she died a hero's death, while others claim she lived until 1890. Her story continues to inspire and is celebrated annually in Bundelkhand.

Kanaklata Barua

• Born on December 22, 1926, in Barang bari, Darrang district of present-day Assam, was a valiant young freedom fighter who laid down her life in the pursuit of India's independence. 
• During the Quit India movement, on September 20, 1942, Kanaklata led a group of youths from the "Mrityu Bahini" youth association to Gohpur Thana with the mission to raise the tricolour flag in the premises. Thus, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
• The police station's officer halted their procession, but Kanaklata, carrying the flag, implored them to let the women proceed. Unyielding, she continued despite threats of gunfire. 
• As she entered the police station, she was shot and died on the spot. At the age of 16, Kanaklata Barua fearlessly stood against the British until her last breath, becoming a martyr for India's freedom struggle.

Matangini Hazra

• Matangini, an extraordinary Indian revolutionary, dedicated her life to freeing the nation from British rule. 
• Despite her frailty, she embraced Gandhian ideals and earned the moniker "Gandhi Buri." 
• Born in 1869 in Hogla village, West Bengal, her early life remains largely unknown. 
• She joined the Non-Cooperation and Salt Satyagraha movements, enduring arrests and imprisonment. Matangini's fearless determination was evident when she led a procession of 6,000 protesters to the Tamluk police station in 1942. Thus, pair 3 is not correctly matched. 
• Despite being shot thrice by British police, she persisted until collapsing and passing away. Her legacy lives on, with statues, schools, and roads named in her honour, symbolising her indelible mark in India's fight for freedom

EXPLANATION: 

• Conservation reserves and community reserves in India refer to protected areas that primarily serve as connectors, buffer zones, and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and other protected forests.

• These areas are categorised as conservation reserves when they are uninhabited and fully owned by the Government of India. Alternatively, they are designated as community reserves when portions of the land are privately owned, while still being used for subsistence by communities. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 

• The concept of conservation and community reserves was introduced through the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002, which amended the original Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. This addition was made to address the challenge of reduced protection around existing or proposed protected areas due to private land ownership and varying land use practices. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Presently, India hosts a total of 220 established Community Reserves, covering an area of 1455.16 square kilometers. This expanse constitutes a mere 0.04% of the nation's total geographical area. Specifically, Nagaland boasts the largest number (114) of these reserves, while Meghalaya is home to 74 of them. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 

EXPLANATION: 

• Inclusive Conservation Initiative (ICI) is a program designed to amplify the endeavours of Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPs and LCs) in safeguarding lands, water bodies, and natural resources to yield worldwide environmental advantages. 
• This initiative is financially supported by the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and receives backing from Conservation International and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Thus, option (b) is correct. 
• Through the Inclusive Conservation Initiative (ICI), efforts are directed towards empowering Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities to conceive and spearhead initiatives that not only preserve biodiversity but also generate broader global environmental benefits.

Global Environment Facility 

• The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was initially created within the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), functioning as a pilot program. Its aim is to aid global environmental protection and facilitate environmentally sustainable economic growth. 
• This initiative resulted from a resolution by the World Bank's Executive Directors and collaborative agreements involving the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the World Bank.

• The GEF was established in 1991 to help developing countries address the global environmental challenges that they face. 
• It provides grants to support projects that have demonstrated the potential to achieve significant environmental benefits at the national and global levels. 
• The GEF also supports capacity building and other activities that help developing countries to better manage their own environmental resources.
• The GEF has six main focal areas:
  • Climate change
  • Biodiversity
  • International waters
  • Land degradation
  • Chemicals and waste
  • Ozone layer

EXPLANATION:

PM-eBus Sewa

• The Cabinet has approved a program called PM-eBus Sewa aimed at enhancing city bus services. The plan involves deploying 10,000 electric buses through a public-private partnership model in 169 cities. Additionally, the infrastructure in 181 cities will be upgraded under the Green Urban Mobility Initiatives. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• The total estimated cost of this initiative is around Rs. 57,613 crore. The government will contribute Rs. 20,000 crore to this amount, and the scheme will support bus operations for a decade.
• The focus is on reaching cities with a population of at least 300,000, including capital cities of Union Territories, areas in the North Eastern Region, and hilly states. Cities without organized bus services will be given priority. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• This initiative is expected to create 45,000 to 55,000 direct jobs through the deployment of 10,000 electric buses.
• The scheme is divided into two parts:
  • Segment A - Augmenting City Bus Services (169 cities): This involves adding 10,000 electric buses through a public-private partnership. The initiative also includes improving depot infrastructure and creating necessary power infrastructure for the buses.
  • Segment B - Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (181 cities): This part focuses on promoting environmentally friendly practices, including bus priority infrastructure, multimodal interchange facilities, automated fare collection systems, and charging infrastructure.
• Operations: 
  • The states and cities will be responsible for running the bus services and paying the bus operators. 
  • The central government will provide subsidies as outlined in the scheme to support these operations. 
  • The Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs will be the nodal ministry for the scheme. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• Benefits: The program aims to boost electric mobility, encourage the adoption of electric buses, and develop charging infrastructure. This transition to electric vehicles is expected to reduce noise, air pollution, and carbon emissions, as well as promote public transportation and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

EXPLANATION:

PM Vishwakarma Scheme

• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, under the leadership of Prime Minister, has granted approval for the implementation of a novel Central Sector Scheme named ‘PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman’ (PM VIKAS) under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
• This initiative has been allocated a budget of Rs. 13,000 crore for a duration spanning five years, encompassing FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 

Aim and Objectives: 

• Revitalizing Guru-Shishya Tradition: The primary aim of the PM Vishwakarma scheme is to invigorate and amplify the Guru-Shishya tradition among artisans and craftspeople who are adept at practicing age-old skills utilizing tools and manual craftsmanship. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Enhancing Quality and Accessibility: The scheme endeavors to elevate the caliber and accessibility of products and services created by these artisans. 
• Integration into Value Chains: Additionally, it seeks to ensure the seamless integration of Vishwakarma artisans into both domestic and international value chains.

Key Features of PM Vishwakarma Scheme

• Recognition and Documentation: Artisans and craftspeople will be formally recognized through the issuance of PM Vishwakarma certificates and ID cards.
• Financial Assistance: The scheme encompasses credit support with two tranches: the first tranche offering up to Rs. 1 lakh and the second tranche providing up to Rs. 2 lakh. Both tranches come with an attractive concessional interest rate of 5%.
• Skill Enhancement: The scheme entails provisions for the enhancement of skills among artisans and craftspeople.
• Toolkit Incentive: Artisans will receive incentives to acquire toolkits essential for their crafts.
• Digital Transaction Incentives: Incentives will be offered to promote digital transactions, enhancing the ease of conducting business.
• Marketing Support: The scheme will provide avenues for marketing support, ensuring better market reach for artisan-produced goods.

Coverage of the Scheme

• The PM Vishwakarma scheme is designed to extend support to artisans and craftspeople residing in both rural and urban regions throughout India. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• Initially, the scheme will encompass a diverse range of eighteen traditional trades, including but not limited to:
  

1. Carpenter (Suthar)
2. Boat Maker
3. Armourer
4. Blacksmith (Lohar)
5. Hammer and Tool Kit Maker
6. Locksmith
7. Goldsmith (Sonar)
8. Potter (Kumhaar)
9. Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker
   
10. Cobbler (Charmkar) 
11. Mason (Rajmistri)
12. Basket/ Mat / Broom Maker/ Coir Weaver
13. Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional)
14. Barber (Naai)
15. Garland maker (Malakaar)
16. Washerman (Dhobi)
17. Tailor (Darzi)
18. Fishing Net Maker.

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NCTA): 

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NCTA) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 
• It was established in 2005 with the aim of conserving and protecting the tiger population and their habitats in India. 
• The NCTA's primary focus is on the implementation of the Project Tiger initiative, which was launched in 1973 to ensure the conservation of tigers in the country.
• The NCTA is responsible for:

• • Providing funding for tiger conservation projects.
  • Monitoring and assessing the status of tigers and their habitats.
  • Developing and implementing strategies for the conservation of tigers.
  • Strengthening enforcement measures against wildlife crime related to tigers and their habitats.

Central Zoo Authority of India (CZAI): 

• The Central Zoo Authority of India (CZAI) is another statutory body established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 
• It was set up in 1992 with the objective of regulating and overseeing the functioning of zoos in India. 
• The CZAI ensures that zoos meet certain standards and guidelines to ensure the well-being of animals, conservation efforts, and educational purposes.
• The CZAI's responsibilities include:
  • Granting recognition to zoos.
  • Providing guidelines for the establishment and management of zoos.
  • Conducting inspections of zoos to ensure compliance with regulations.
  • Promoting wildlife conservation through zoos.
  • Facilitating breeding programs for endangered species in captivity.

Wildlife Crime Control Bureau

• The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a specialized law enforcement agency that was established under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 
• It was established in 2007 to combat wildlife crime and ensure the effective enforcement of wildlife protection laws in India. Wildlife crime includes activities like poaching, trafficking, and illegal trade of wildlife and their derivatives.
• The WCCB's key functions include:
  • Gathering intelligence related to wildlife crime.
  • Coordinating with law enforcement agencies to combat wildlife trafficking.
  • Assisting in the prosecution of wildlife-related cases.
  • Conducting training and capacity-building programs for law enforcement personnel.
  • Creating awareness about wildlife crime and its consequences.

Forest Survey of India (FSI): 

• The Forest Survey of India (FSI) is an important organisation involved in forest and wildlife-related activities founded in 1981. It was not established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 
• The FSI is responsible for conducting periodic forest surveys, collecting and analyzing forest-related data, and providing information about forest cover and biodiversity.
• It is a crucial organization for understanding the status of forests and wildlife habitats in India. Thus, option (c) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

East Container Terminal (ECT) Project

Approximately two years after Sri Lanka cancelled a collaborative Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) involving India and Japan for the East Container Terminal (ECT) project located in Colombo, the three nations are now exploring ways to rejuvenate their trilateral cooperation efforts. 

• In 2019, India and Sri Lanka had signed an MoU focused on joint economic projects, and within this framework, plans for a Container Terminal in Colombo Port were included, recognizing India's considerable transshipment activities. Thus, option (c) is correct. 
• Although the MoU did not explicitly mention the Eastern Container Terminal, discussions had been ongoing for its establishment. 
• But, Sri Lanka withdrew from the agreement. Despite this setback, all three countries are currently considering reviving the ECT project. 

Terms of the agreement:

• The Sri Lanka Ports Authority (SLPA) would retain complete ownership of the ECT, while the Terminal Operations Company (TOC) responsible for ECT operations would be jointly owned, with Sri Lanka holding 51% and the joint venture partners holding 49%. 
• The development of the ECT was initially anticipated to be funded by a 40-year loan from Japan at an interest rate of 0.1%, offering favourable terms for Sri Lanka.

EXPLANATION:

• The Seventh Schedule and the Article 246 of the Indian Constitution divides the powers and responsibilities of governance between the central government (Union) and the state governments. 
• There are three lists within the Seventh Schedule: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. Each list specifies the subjects over which the Union, state governments, or both have legislative powers.
• Education: 
  • Education is included under the Concurrent List. This means that both the central government and state governments have the authority to legislate on matters related to education. 
  • The Union government can make laws on topics like universities, higher education institutions, technical education, etc. 
  • State governments can legislate on issues concerning primary education, secondary education, vocational education, etc. The idea is to ensure cooperation and coordination between the two levels of government in promoting education across the country.
• Gambling: 
  • Gambling is included under the State List. This gives state governments the exclusive authority to make laws related to gambling within their respective states. 
  • States have the power to regulate and decide whether to permit or prohibit various forms of gambling, such as casinos, betting, and lotteries. Gambling laws can vary significantly from one state to another due to this decentralisation of power.
• Civil Laws related to marriage, divorce, etc.: 
  • Civil laws related to marriage, divorce, adoption, and succession are included under the Concurrent List. 
  • Both the central government and state governments can make laws related to these subjects. 
  • However, personal laws based on religion, such as Hindu Marriage Act, etc., come under the purview of the central government. 
  • In case of any conflict between central and state laws on civil matters, the central law generally prevails.
• Electricity: 
  • Electricity is included under the Concurrent List. 
  • The central government can create laws regarding the regulation of electricity, while state governments can legislate on the generation, transmission, and distribution of electricity within their jurisdictions.
  • This dual authority aims to ensure a balance between national policies and local needs in the energy sector. Thus, option (a) is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

Urea Gold- a new variety of urea that is coated with sulphur- is a revolutionary fertiliser developed by Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilisers Ltd (RCF). This enriched urea variant combines the essential properties of urea with the benefits of sulphur. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 

Benefits of Urea Gold

• Addressing Soil Deficiencies: 

• • • While conventional urea holds 46% nitrogen (N), Urea Gold offers 37% nitrogen combined with 17% sulphur (S).
    • The unique composition is designed to fulfill the specific demands of Indian soils, particularly vital for oilseeds and pulses, crucial commodities reliant on imports.

• Enhancing Nitrogen Efficiency

• • • The sulfur-coated urea introduces an innovative approach to enhance nitrogen use efficiency (NUE) in fertilization.
    • The sulfur coating promotes a gradual, prolonged release of nitrogen, resulting in plants maintaining their lush green color over an extended period. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
    • This extended release mechanism allows farmers to potentially reduce the frequency of fertilizer applications. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 
    • For instance, sustained greening may enable farmers to use just two bags of Urea Gold per acre for crops like paddy or wheat, rather than the typical three bags.

• Competitive Costs

• • Traditional neem-coated urea, usually weighing 45 kg per bag, costs approximately Rs 254 after local taxes. 
  • Urea Gold, benefiting from its slow-release mechanism and capacity to boost nitrogen use efficiency, might be packaged in 40 kg bags. 
  • It is anticipated that the price of Urea Gold will range from Rs 400-500 per bag, offering a cost-effective and efficient option for farmers.

EXPLANATION:

Lately, the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) has garnered significant global focus as it takes a leading role in dealing with the aftermath of the coup in Niger.

Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) 

• The ECOWAS, alternatively referred to as CEDEAO in French, constitutes a regional intergovernmental entity that was founded in 1975. 
• Stemming from the Lagos Treaty, its fundamental purpose is to nurture economic amalgamation, collaboration, and advancement amidst nations in West Africa. 
• The ECOWAS Secretariat is headquartered in Abuja, Nigeria.

Member Nations: ECOWAS comprises 15 constituent countries: 

Benin, Burkina Faso, Cape Verde, Côte d’Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea Bissau, Liberia, Mali, Niger, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Senegal, and Togo. Thus, option (b) is correct.

Aims and Objectives of ECOWAS:

• Fostering economic synthesis amid member countries.
• Simplifying unrestricted mobility of individuals, merchandise, and amenities.
• Amplifying regional partnership across diverse domains encompassing industry, transportation, energy, and finance.
• Cultivating a boundary-erased region governed by democratic principles, the rule of law, and effective administration.
• Tackling security and political predicaments via mutual cooperation and conflict resolution.