Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 04 to 09 September, 2023

EXPLANATION:

The State of India's Birds 2023 report, which was recently released, highlighted that, despite thriving a few bird species, there is a significant decline in numerous bird species.

State of India’s Birds 2023:

• It is a unique collaboration of 13 government and non-government organizations, including the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), Wildlife Institute of India (WII), and Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Wildlife Trust of India (WTI), and Worldwide Fund for Nature-India (WWF-India), among others. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• It assesses the overall conservation status of India's most common bird species.
• Key findings of the State of India’s Birds, 2023:
• Most bird species show a decline in population and distribution over the past 25 years, especially in the Western Ghats, the Himalayas, and the coasts.
• Some bird species show an increase in population and distribution, such as the Indian Peafowl, the House Sparrow, and the Common Myna. These are mostly adaptable and generalist species that can thrive in human-dominated landscapes. Thus, statement 2 is not correct, and statement 3 is correct. 
• The major threats to birds in India are habitat loss and degradation, hunting and trapping, climate change, invasive species, pollution, and disease.

EXPLANATION: 

Seethakali originated as a harvest festival dance in Desinganad, Kerala, during Onam. The performers, predominantly from subaltern communities, would travel from one household to another, presenting this unique art form. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 

Distinctive features. 

• It is a traditional folk dance drama that focuses on episodes from the Ramayana, primarily from the perspective of Sita. 
• Dalit artists performed the performance from the Veda and Pulaya communities. Thus, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct. 
• Seethakali narrates Sita's journey from her exile to the forest ("van yatra") to her ultimate descent into the earth ("andardhanam"). 
• This narrative is brought to life through a combination of songs, storytelling, and swift movements, accompanied by instruments like ganjira, manikatta, chiratta, and kaimani.
• One of the remarkable aspects of Seethakali is its reliance on songs to convey the story, with a collection of 28 songs gathered over three years. 
• These songs are influenced by various folk styles, such as Vallappaattu, Kuthirappaattu, and Rakshasappattu. 
• The tradition of Seethakali has been predominantly oral, with songs passed down from one generation to the next, resulting in occasional interruptions in the continuity of this art form. 
• Despite its simplicity in basic movements, Seethakali aims to preserve the authentic essence of this unique dance drama, featuring characters like Sita, Ram, Lakshman, Ravan, and Hanuman.

EXPLANATION:

Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBF-Fund)

• The GBF-Fund is a special trust fund under the GEF and its creation is significant as it recognizes the fundamental role of Indigenous Peoples and local communities in protecting biodiversity. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBF-Fund) was established by the Seventh Global Environment Facility (GEF) Assembly to support the implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework agreed at COP15. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 

Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework

• The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, adopted during COP 15 to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) represents a historic milestone. The GBF aims to halt and reverse nature loss by setting 23 global targets to be achieved by 2030 and beyond to safeguard and sustainably use biodiversity. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• The framework includes 4 overarching goals to be achieved by 2050, focusing on ecosystem and species health, sustainable use of biodiversity, equitable sharing of benefits, and implementation and finance. 
• Among the 23 targets to be achieved by 2030 are the conservation of 30% of land and sea, restoration of 30% of degraded ecosystems, halving the introduction of invasive species, and a $500 billion/year reduction in harmful subsidies.

EXPLANATION:

• The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established in 2012 to provide policymakers with objective scientific assessments about the state of knowledge regarding the planet’s biodiversity, ecosystems, and the benefits they provide to people. 
• It is not a United Nations body. Still, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• IPBES currently has close to 140 Member States. India is a member country of this organization. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 

• Organizational Structure: 

• • Plenary: the governing body made up of representatives of IPBES member States; 
  • Observers: include non-member States, biodiversity-related conventions, UN bodies, and other relevant organizations.
  • Bureau: oversees administrative functions; 
  • Multidisciplinary Expert Panel (MEP): oversees scientific and technical functions; 
  • Stakeholders: contribute to and use IPBES outputs; 
  • Expert Groups and Task Forces: carry out assessments and other deliverables;
  • Secretariat: supports the functioning of IPBES.

EXPLANATION:

• The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental body established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris to develop policies against money laundering. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Since its establishment, the FATF has broadened its scope to address fresh and developing risks to the worldwide financial system. 
• In 2001, the group included terrorism financing in its list of concerns, acknowledging that terrorist groups also need funding to carry out their operations. 
• In 2012, the FATF started working to stop the spread of weapons of mass destruction, as the financing of these weapons can result in catastrophic outcomes. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• The objective of FATF is to establish international standards and promote policies at national and international levels to combat money laundering and terrorism financing. 
• It makes recommendations for combating financial crime, reviews member countries’ policies and procedures, and seeks to increase acceptance of anti-money laundering regulations globally.
• The FATF Secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Headquarters in Paris. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 
• FATF has 39 member countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the European Union. India became a member in 2010. Thus, statement 4 is not correct. 
• FATF maintains two lists - the greylist and the blacklist - to identify countries that support terror funding and money laundering activities. 
• The FATF greylist highlights countries with anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CTF)  system deficiencies. Being on the list can increase scrutiny and make international transactions difficult. 
• The FATF blacklist is for non-cooperative countries, resulting in severe economic sanctions.

EXPLANATION:

• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are government-owned commercial banks in India, operating at a regional level in various states, with the aim of serving the country's rural areas by providing basic banking and other financial services. 
• The establishment of RRBs results from a recommendation made by the Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit in 1975. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The functions of RRBs include: 
  • providing basic banking facilities to rural and semi-urban areas, 
  • disbursing wages under government policies such as MGNREGA, 
  • offering other bank-related facilities like locker facility, internet banking, mobile banking, debit and credit cards, 
  • granting credit facilities to people in rural areas, such as small farmers, artisans, small entrepreneurs, etc. 
  • They also accept deposits from people. 
• RRBs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and supervised by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• They are jointly owned by the Government of India (GOI), the Sponsor Bank, and the concerned State Government, with share proportions of 50%, 35%, and 15%, respectively. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• The Board of Directors manages these banks' overall affairs, consisting of one Chairman, three Directors nominated by the Central Government, a maximum of two Directors appointed by the concerned State Government, and a maximum of three Directors selected by the sponsor bank.

EXPLANATION:

• Khanan Prahari is a mobile app launched by the Ministry of Coal to combat illegal coal mining activities. It enables citizens to report such incidents by sending geo-tagged photos and text information. The app is linked to a web portal called Coal Mine Surveillance & Management System (CMSMS), which is developed by the Bhaskaracharya Institute of Space Application & Geoinformatics, Gandhinagar, and Central Mine Planning and Design Institute (CMPDI), Ranchi. Thus, option (b) is correct.
• This approach uses advanced technology and public participation to address this critical issue. The app has the following features:
  • Reporting Incidents: Users can easily report illegal mining by taking photos and providing comments.
  • Confidentiality: The user's identity is protected, ensuring privacy and security.
  • Complaint Tracking: Complainants get a complaint number, which they can use to track the status of their complaints

EXPLANATION:

DSCOVR 

• DSCOVR (Deep Space Climate Observatory) is a NASA mission that was launched in 2015. 
• It is currently in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1, which is a point in space where the gravitational pull of the Sun and Earth are equal. 
• DSCOVR's mission is to monitor solar wind and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) from the Sun, as well as to monitor Earth's climate. 
• The spacecraft has a number of instruments that it uses to collect data on these phenomena, including a solar wind plasma detector, a CME imager, and an Earth climate monitor. Thus, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 

Parker Solar Probe

• Parker Solar Probe is a NASA mission that was launched in 2018. Its objective is to conduct a close-range study of the solar corona, the Sun's outermost layer. 
• The probe will use a series of gravity assists from Venus to gradually get closer to the Sun until it eventually reaches a distance of just 9.5 solar radii (about 6.9 million miles). 
• This will allow Parker Solar Probe to study the corona in unprecedented detail and help scientists to understand how it is heated and accelerated. Thus, pair 2 is correctly matched. 

Solar Orbiter

• Solar Orbiter is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA that was launched in 2020. 
• Its objective is to study the Sun from different perspectives, including from closer to the Sun than ever before. 
• Solar Orbiter will use a combination of instruments to study the Sun's atmosphere, magnetic field, and solar wind. It will also be the first spacecraft to image the Sun's poles. Thus, pair 3 is not correctly matched. 

CuSP 

• CuSP (Cusps Solar Probe) is a NASA mission that was launched in 2022. Its objective is to study the particles and magnetic fields in the solar environment, particularly in the cusps, which are regions where the solar wind interacts with the Earth's magnetic field.
• CuSP will use a variety of instruments to study these phenomena, including a particle detector, a magnetometer, and an imager. Thus, pair 4 is correctly matched.

EXPLANATION:

Aditya-L1

• Aditya L1 is the first solar mission of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It was launched on September 2, 2023, and is currently in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1.
• The Aditya-L1 mission was conceived in January 2008 by the Advisory Committee for Space Research. 
• L1 is a gravitationally stable point between the Sun and Earth, which means that Aditya-L1 will be able to stay in this orbit without using any fuel. This is important because it will allow the spacecraft to observe the Sun without any interruptions continuously.
• Aditya-L1 was launched using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) XL. It will take approximately 109 Earth days for Aditya-L1 to reach its final orbit around L1.
• Aditya L1's mission is to study the Sun's atmosphere, solar magnetic storms, and their impact on the environment around the Earth.
• The spacecraft has seven payloads that will be used to collect data on these phenomena. Aditya L1 is expected to operate for five years.

Objectives of the Aditya-L1 mission:

• To study the dynamics of the Sun's upper atmosphere, including the chromosphere and corona.
• To understand the processes that heat the chromosphere and corona and the physics of partially ionized plasma.
• To study the initiation of phenomena such as coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and solar flares.
• To gather in-situ data on particles and plasma in the solar environment to help us understand how they are affected by the Sun.
• To map the magnetic field topology of the solar corona and to measure the magnetic field strength.
• To study the drivers of space weather, including the origin, composition, and dynamics of the solar wind. Thus, option (c) is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The National Statistical Office (NSO) is a wing of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India. It is responsible for the development and maintenance of statistical standards and coordination of statistical activities in the country. 
• The NSO also conducts large-scale sample surveys and publishes various reports and indices on a regular basis. 
• Some of the reports and indices published by the NSO include
• Consumer Price Index (CPI): CPI measures changes in the price level of a market basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households.
• Index of Industrial Production (IIP): IIP measures the growth of various sectors in an economy, such as mining, manufacturing, and electricity.
• National Accounts Statistics: This includes estimates of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Gross Value Added (GVA), and other macroeconomic aggregates.
• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS): This survey provides estimates of various labor force indicators such as the unemployment rate, labor force participation rate, etc.
• Provisional Estimates of Annual National Income: The NSO releases provisional estimates of national income, expenditure components of GDP, and other macroeconomic aggregates on an annual basis. Thus, option (b) is correct. 
• Additional Information: 

• • Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the changes in the price of goods sold by wholesalers in India. The WPI is published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) measures the combined and individual performance of production in eight selected core industries in India. The index is compiled and released by the Office of Economic Adviser (OEA).
• National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India. The survey is conducted by the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) Mumbai, under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India.

EXPLANATION:

In recent years, several former French colonies in Africa have experienced repeated military coups. Some experts attribute this trend to high levels of poverty, poor governance, excessive French influence, and ineffective civil society. 

• Thus, option (d) is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Fujiwhara Effect is a phenomenon that occurs when two tropical cyclones, moving in close proximity and rotating in the same direction, begin to interact. 
• During this process, these storms engage in an intricate dance around a shared centre. Typically, the more powerful hurricane absorbs the weaker one. 
• However, when the storms possess similar strengths, they are drawn toward each other, orbit one another briefly, and then continue on their individual trajectories.
• This interaction can occasionally lead to the merging of two smaller hurricanes into a single, larger storm, although such instances are infrequent, as noted by the weather service.
• The Fujiwhara Effect derives its name from Japanese meteorologist Sakuhei Fujiwhara, who first documented this phenomenon in a 1921 research paper. Thus, option (c) is correct.