Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes 20 to 25 November 2023

EXPLANATION:

Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC): 

Establishment and Membership:

• APEC was established in 1989. It began as an informal ministerial-level dialogue group with 12 founding members: Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Indonesia; Japan; Korea; Malaysia; New Zealand; the Philippines; Singapore; Thailand; and the United States. Currently, it consists of 21 member economies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Current Member Nations:

Malaysia, Mexico, Peru, Philippines, Russia, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Singapore, Chinese Taipei, Thailand, Vietnam, and the United States, Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, China, Hong Kong, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea.

Economic Significance:

• APEC's 21 member economies collectively represent around 2.8 billion people.
• In 2015, APEC economies accounted for approximately 59% of the world GDP and 49% of world trade.

India and APEC:

• Membership Request: India has expressed interest in APEC membership.
• Observer Status: While it is true that India's request for APEC membership was declined, the primary opposition stemmed from geopolitical considerations rather than the lack of a Pacific Ocean border. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Several APEC members, including the United States, Japan, Australia, and Papua New Guinea, were against India's inclusion. Despite this, India was invited to become an observer in November 2011. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Reasons for India to Join APEC:

• Global Integration: APEC economies constitute a vital trading bloc globally, and India's participation would enhance its integration with the global economy.
• Negotiation Leverage: Membership in APEC could provide India with increased bargaining power and better negotiation opportunities in the Asia-Pacific region.

Expected Benefits to APEC:

• Market Expansion: APEC would find an alternate market in India for labor, consumers, and investments, contributing to economic growth.
• Counterweight in the Region: India's participation could act as a counterweight, checking unilateral economic ambitions in the Asia-Pacific region.
• Embracing Indo-Pacific Concept: APEC's inclusion of India would facilitate the organization in embracing the concept of the 'Indo-Pacific,' aligning with geopolitical shifts in the 21st century.

EXPLANATION:

The Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment (PGII) is a joint initiative launched by the Group of Seven (G7) during the G7 summit in Germany in 2022. The primary objective of PGII is to provide financial support for infrastructure projects in developing countries through a combination of public and private investments. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Key Points about PGII:

• Origins: The idea for a global infrastructure plan was initially announced in 2021 during the G7 summit in the UK. While initially termed the Build Back Better World (B3W) framework by the US President, it faced challenges in making substantial progress.
• Official Launch: In 2022, the PGII was officially launched as a collaborative effort among G7 nations. The launch took place during the G7 summit in Germany.
• Financial Goals: PGII collectively aims to mobilize nearly $600 billion from G7 countries by the year 2027. This substantial financial commitment is intended to fund critical infrastructure projects in developing nations, with the goal of improving the quality of life and delivering tangible benefits to the people in these regions.
• Global Trade and Cooperation: The overarching purpose of both PGII and China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is to secure funding for countries to develop essential infrastructure such as roads, ports, bridges, and communication setups. The aim is to enhance global trade and foster international cooperation.
• Alternative Framework: PGII represents the G7's alternative framework for infrastructure projects, providing an alternative to the projects undertaken and sponsored by China under the BRI. It signals a concerted effort by G7 nations to present their approach to global infrastructure development. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• China's Response: While China has welcomed the initiative, it has expressed opposition to advancing geopolitical calculations under the pretext of infrastructure construction or disparaging the Belt and Road Initiative. China's BRI is a major global infrastructure project that seeks to connect countries through a network of infrastructure investments.

In summary, the Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment (PGII) is a collaborative effort by G7 nations to channel significant financial resources into critical infrastructure projects in developing countries, offering an alternative vision to China's Belt and Road Initiative.

EXPLANATION:

• Hamas is a Palestinian political armed group founded in 1987. It emerged as a militant organization in resistance to Israeli occupation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Formed as an offshoot of Egypt's Muslim Brotherhood, it follows an ideology that rejects any compromise on the land of Palestine. Designated as a terrorist organization by the United States since 1997, many other countries, including Israel and most of Europe, share this designation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The main demand of Hamas does not align with the 'Two State Solution.' Instead, Hamas has consistently expressed a rejection of compromise on the land of Palestine. Its stance is rooted in the belief that no part of Palestine should be compromised or conceded, advocating for the complete liberation of the land. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

The Abraham Accords, initiated in 2020, represent a historic transformation in diplomatic relations in the Middle East, involving agreements between Israel and several Arab states. Named after the biblical figure Abraham, considered a common ancestor of Jews and Arabs, the Accords symbolize a spirit of brotherhood. The key countries involved in the Abraham Accords include:

Israel:

• As a central participant, Israel committed to normalizing diplomatic relations with Arab nations, signifying a significant departure from historically adversarial relationships with many Arab states.

United Arab Emirates (UAE):

• The UAE, taking a pioneering role, became the first Arab country to formally announce normalization of relations with Israel under the Abraham Accords. This groundbreaking agreement includes the establishment of full diplomatic relations, as well as fostering economic, technological, and cultural exchanges.

Bahrain:

• Following the UAE's lead, Bahrain also entered into a similar agreement with Israel. The Bahrain-Israel Peace Agreement encompasses diplomatic relations and collaboration across various sectors.

Sudan:

• Sudan joined the Abraham Accords by committing to normalize relations with Israel. This move marked a significant shift in Sudan's foreign policy and resulted in the removal of Sudan from the U.S. list of state sponsors of terrorism.

Morocco:

• Another Arab nation, Morocco, joined the Accords with a commitment to normalize relations with Israel. 

The Abraham Accords signify a noteworthy development in the geopolitics of the Middle East, fostering diplomatic ties and cooperation between Israel and Arab nations that historically had strained relationships. Hence, option (c) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Mandelbrot set is primarily related to fractal geometry. It is a famous and visually captivating fractal, a mathematical set that exhibits intricate and complex patterns at every level of magnification. The Mandelbrot set is generated through an iterative mathematical process and is widely studied in the field of fractal geometry.

• There is no direct association between the Mandelbrot set and celestial mechanics or orbital decay. Celestial mechanics typically pertains to the study of the motion of celestial objects such as planets and satellites, and orbital decay refers to the gradual decrease of an object's orbital parameters over time due to various factors.

• There is no direct connection between the Mandelbrot set and immunology or conjugate vaccines. Immunology is the branch of biology that studies the immune system, and conjugate vaccines are a type of vaccine design. These concepts are not related to the mathematical structure of the Mandelbrot set.

• The Mandelbrot set is not directly related to artificial intelligence (AI). AI involves the development of algorithms and systems that can perform tasks that typically require human intelligence. While AI may involve mathematical concepts, the Mandelbrot set is specifically associated with fractal geometry and is not a core component of AI research. Hence, option (a) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

About the Coconut Development Board:

Statutory Body: The Coconut Development Board is a statutory body established by the Government of India for the integrated development of coconut production and utilization in the country with focus on productivity increase and product diversification. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Ministry Affiliation: The board operates under the umbrella of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, aligning its activities with the broader agricultural objectives of the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Mandate:

• The central mandate of the Coconut Development Board is to facilitate the holistic development of coconut cultivation and the coconut industry in India. This involves a strategic focus on increasing productivity levels and promoting diversification of coconut-related products.

Headquarters:

• The headquarters of the Coconut Development Board is strategically located in Kochi, Kerala, reflecting the significant role of the state in coconut cultivation and industry. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Establishment: The board was officially established in the year 1981, marking a pivotal moment in the organized efforts to boost the coconut sector in the country.

EXPLANATION:

Argoland, a long-lost continent, separated from northwestern Australia around 155 million years ago. Initially part of the supercontinent Gondwana, it underwent fragmentation due to tectonic forces, eventually drifting away from the rest of the continent and dispersing over Southeast Asia. Unlike India, which separated from Gondwana 120 million years ago and remains a cohesive landmass, Argoland broke into fragments. The fragments reached their current locations simultaneously, forming an archipelago rather than a unified landmass. Presently, Argoland is distributed as an archipelago divided by ocean basins, contributing to the formation of various Southeast Asian islands.

Key Facts about Gondwana:

Gondwana, a supercontinent existing from approximately 550 million years ago until around 180 million years ago, coexisted with Laurasia. Over time, continents, including Africa, South America, Australia, Antarctica, the Indian Subcontinent, and the Arabian Peninsula, separated from Gondwana, marking a significant geological transformation. Hence, option (b) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• In compliance with the Supreme Court's directive in the M. C. Mehta v. Union of India case (2016), which addresses air quality concerns in the National Capital Region of Delhi, a Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) has been instituted. The plan, announced by the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change in 2017, aims to prevent, control, and reduce air pollution by maintaining PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations below the national AQI threshold for "moderate."
• To oversee the implementation of this plan, the central government established the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region and adjoining areas. This statutory body collaborates with various states to formulate and execute strategies for air pollution prevention and management in the designated regions.
• The Revised GRAP introduces a significant shift by linking restrictions on polluting activities to the Air Quality Index (AQI) rather than specific PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations. The revised plan comprises four stages, each aligned with different AQI ranges:
  • Stage 1: "Poor" AQI (201-300)
  • Stage 2: "Very Poor" AQI (301-400)
  • Stage 3: "Severe" AQI (401-450)
  • Stage 4: "Severe Plus" AQI (greater than 450)
• The implementation of the first stage of the revised GRAP has been confirmed by the authority, reflecting a strategic approach to address air quality issues at varying pollution levels. Hence, option (a) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure that evaluates the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services. It reflects the perspective of the end consumer, not a retail seller. The basket typically includes items such as food, clothing, rent, healthcare, and entertainment, among others.  Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• In India, the Consumer Price Index is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The NSO is responsible for collecting and presenting statistical data related to various aspects of the Indian economy.  Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The base year for the Consumer Price Index in India is 2012. The base year is a reference point against which the price changes in subsequent years are measured. It provides a benchmark for calculating inflation rates and understanding the extent of price changes in the economy.  Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

The sugar industry stands as a crucial agro-based sector, significantly impacting the livelihoods of approximately 50 million sugarcane farmers and employing around 5 lakh workers directly in sugar mills.

Industry Ranking:

• The sugar industry holds the position of the second-largest agro-based industry in India, following cotton.
• Geographical Conditions for Sugarcane Growth:
• Temperature: Optimal growth occurs between 21-27°C, with a hot and humid climate.
• Rainfall: Adequate rainfall ranging from 75-100 cm is favorable.
• Soil Type: Deep and rich loamy soil supports sugarcane cultivation.

Top Sugarcane Producing States:

• Maharashtra
• Uttar Pradesh
• Karnataka

Current Status of the Sugarcane Sector:

• Global Standing:
  • India holds the title of the world's leading producer, consumer, and the second-largest exporter of sugar.
• Production Figures:
  • According to the Indian Sugar Mills Association (ISMA), India experienced a 3.69% increase in sugar production, reaching 12.07 million tonnes in the October-December quarter of 2022.
  • In the corresponding period of the previous year, the production stood at 11.64 million tonnes.
• Total Sugar Production:
  • Accounting for diversion for ethanol manufacturing, total sugar production reached 193.5 lakh tonnes by January 2023, marking an increase from 187.1 lakh tonnes in the same period last year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Mechanism for Sugarcane Price Determination

Determination Authorities:

• The determination of sugarcane prices is a collaborative effort involving both the Central Government and State Governments.

Central Government's Role:

• Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP):
  • The Central Government plays a pivotal role in setting the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.
  • The FRP is established based on the recommendations provided by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • The final announcement of FRP is made by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).
• Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA):
  • Chaired by the Prime Minister of India, the CCEA takes the lead in approving and announcing the FRP.
• Basis for FRP:

The FRP calculation is grounded in the insights derived from the Rangarajan Committee report, focusing on the restructuring of the sugarcane industry.  Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

PESA Act of 1996

Background:

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment of 1992 aimed to promote local self-governance in rural India.

This amendment established a three-tier Panchayati Raj Institution into law. However, its application to scheduled and tribal areas was limited under Article 243(M).

In response to the Bhuria Committee recommendations in 1995, the PESA Act of 1996 was enacted to ensure tribal self-rule in scheduled areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Role of State Government:

PESA, a central enactment, mandates self-governance through gram sabhas (village assemblies) in scheduled areas.

State governments were required to amend their Panchayat Raj Acts to align with PESA without inconsistency.

Objective:

Legally recognizes the right of tribal communities in scheduled areas to self-governance.

Acknowledges their traditional rights over natural resources.

Importance of Gram Sabha in PESA Act:

Democratic Decentralization:

• Empower Gram sabhas to approve development plans and control social sectors.
• Includes management of water, forest, land, minor forest produce, human resources, local markets, prevention of land alienation, and regulation of intoxicants, among other aspects.

• Preserving Identity:
  • Gram sabhas have powers to maintain cultural identity, control schemes affecting tribals, and manage natural resources within the village.
• Conflict Resolution:
  • Enables gram sabhas to establish a safety net over their rights and surroundings against external or internal conflicts.
• Public Watchdog:

Gram sabhas possess the authority to monitor and prohibit the production, transport, sale, and consumption of intoxicants within their village limits. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• A voltaic or galvanic cell is an electrochemical cell that generates electrical energy through redox (reduction-oxidation) reactions. In a redox reaction, one substance loses electrons (oxidation), and another gains electrons (reduction). The flow of electrons between these substances creates an electric current. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A voltaic cell is typically composed of two half-cells, each containing an electrode and an electrolyte. The two half-cells are electrically connected, allowing the transfer of electrons between them, which is essential for the generation of an electric current. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Each half-cell includes a metal electrode, which can be made of the same metal as the electrolyte or a different metal. The electrolyte is a solution that contains ions of the metal used in the electrode. The metal electrode and its corresponding metal ions in the electrolyte are involved in the redox reactions that produce the flow of electrons and, consequently, the electric current.  Hence, statement 3 is correct.