Plutus IAS ‘Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 22 to 27 January, 2024

EXPLANATION:

• Launched in 2006, the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) legally enshrines the “right to work” and ensures livelihood security in rural areas. Hence, statement (1) is correct. 
• It provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do only unskilled manual work. Hence, statement (4) is incorrect. 
• An important objective of MGNREGA has been to encourage women’s effective participation, both as workers and as administrators.
• For instance, according to MGNREGA guidelines, at least 33% of the beneficiaries shall be women who have registered and requested for work under the programme.
• Further, since employment is provided within 5 km radius of the village, it has immense potential to bolster women’s participation.
• As per Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS-5): 59.25% of the workers who used the scheme this year were women, their highest level of participation since 2012-13.Hence, statement (3) is correct. 
• The proportion of women person-days in the total has consistently increased since 2021 (54%) to 59% (2023). 
• A major issue associated with MGNREGA is that it is not reflective of inflation and thus provides low wages. 
• Thus Parliamentary Standing Committee on Rural Development and Panchayati Raj has recommended to move away from current fixation of wages on CPI-AL (Consumer Price Index-Agriculture Labour) to Consumer Price Index- Combined (CPI-C) to be better reflective of Inflation.  Hence, statement (5) is incorrect. 
• At the same time, it has suggested that the Central Government shall fix uniform wage rate for all states, further bridge the wage disparity among states and prevent uncalled for outward migration from poor states (a major issue during Pandemic years). Hence, statement (2) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

Recently, the Prime Minister (PM) of India attended the 20th Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)-India Summit and the 18th East Asia Summit (EAS) in Jakarta, Indonesia.

• ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of Bangkok Declaration by the 5 Founding Fathers of ASEAN: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand (IMPST). 
• ASEAN currently comprise of 10 countries: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.
• Chairmanship rotates annually, based on the alphabetical order of the English names of Member States.
• By aligning India’s Act East Policy with the U.S. Pivot to Asia, India seeks to expand its geo-strategic space to contend with China’s growing assertiveness and foster balanced relations.
• India signed an FTA with ASEAN (its 4th largest trading partner), known as the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA), on 13th August, 2009 followed by an FTA in Services and investments in 2014.
• Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP): RCEP is the world's largest trading bloc comprising 33% of Global Population & 30% of World's GDP.
  • The RCEP negotiations began in 2012. It was officially signed in November 2020, marking a major milestone in regional trade.
  • 15 member countries include ASEAN countries & 5 Associate states: China, Japan, South Korea, Australia & New Zealand. Hence Option C is correct.  
  • The RCEP negotiation includes trade in goods, services, investment, economic and technical cooperation, intellectual property, competition, dispute settlement, e-commerce, small and medium enterprises (SMEs) and other issues.
  • It majorly aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs and non-tariff barriers to trade.
  • India was a founding member of the RCEP, However In 2019, India decided to withdraw from the RCEP negotiations.

EXPLANATION: 

NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL (NGT): 

• NGT is a Statutory body created under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010) for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. As safeguard of wildlife is not covered under the Act, Statement (1) is incorrect
• With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
• For fast justice delivery: NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. Hence, statement (2) is correct
• The NGT has 5 places of sittings: New Delhi is the principal place of sitting and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.
• The Tribunal comprises of the Chairperson, the Judicial Members and Expert Members which hold office for term of 3 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier and are not eligible for reappointment.
• There are to be least 10 and maximum 20 full time Judicial members and Expert Members in the tribunal.
• The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with Chief Justice of India (CJI) and not by CJI directly. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect
• Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial question relating to environment including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment. It includes power of appellate jurisdiction. Hence, statement (4) is incorrect
• In October 2021, the Supreme Court declared the National Green Tribunal’s (NGT) position as a “unique” forum endowed with Suo motu (on its own motion) powers to take up environmental issues across the country.
• The appeal against order of NGT, as per the 2010 Act lies only with the Supreme court however its decisions are being challenged in High courts. Hence, statement (5) is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

The India and Russia ties have been a longstanding relation since 1971 when Russia supported India in Liberation war of Bangladesh against pressure of Nuclear warfare by USA:

• India-Russia signed the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Friendship & Cooperation on 9th August 1971: It was the first political treaty India made with another nation.
  • • It acted as a turning point in India’s traditional Non-aligned policy so vigorously enunciated at Bandung in 1955.
• India further signed the  “Declaration on the India-Russia Strategic Partnership” in 2000. 
• Political engagement has seen further highs with the current Government. For example: In 2019, President Putin signed the Executive Order on awarding PM Narendra Modi Russia’s highest state decoration – The order of St Andrew the Apostle.
• JOINT PROJECTS BY INDIA & RUSSIA: 

• • Indian Navy’s first submarine, ‘Foxtrot Class’ came from Russia
  • INS Vikramaditya, the sole aircraft carrier operated by India, is also Russian in origin.
  • The joint military programmes between India and Russia include: BrahMos cruise missile programme, 5th generation fighter jet programme, Sukhoi Su-30MKI programme, Ilyushin/HAL Tactical Transport Aircraft & KA-226T twin-engine utility helicopters.
  • Russia is an important partner for India in the area of peaceful use of nuclear energy: Eg- Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KKNPP) is being built in India .
  • Further, Both India and Russia are implementing Rooppur Nuclear Power Project in Bangladesh.

EXPLANATION: 

Recently, the Post Office Act 2023 was passed by the Government of India. Thus history of Posts in India has become important in the context of the examination: 

HISTORY OF POST IN INDIA:

• 1296 CE: Horse and foot postal system during the rule of Allauddin Khilji
• 1341 CE: Ibn Battuta describes El Wolak (Horse carriers) and El Davah, (foot runners) during the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (1325-1351 CE) 
• 1541 CE: Sher Shah introduces horse dak on the 2000-mile stretch of road between Bengal and Sind (Grand Trunk Road)
• 1672 CE: Mysore Anche is established by Maharaja Chikka Devaraya Wodeyar.
• 1766 CE: Robert Clive sets up a regular postal system
• 1774 CE: Warren Hastings organizes the Post Office
• 1854 CE: Post Office Act XVII introduced by Lord Dalhousie 
• Indian Postal order was established in 1935 CE
• Thus, option B is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

Disqualification of MPs and MLAs  as per RPA 1951:

• Section 8 (3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.  Hence, statement (1) is correct
• Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his appeal is pending for disposal, he is disqualified from contesting an election. Hence, statement (2) is incorrect. 
• Section 8(4) allowed convicted MPs, MLAs and MLCs to continue in their posts, provided they appealed against their conviction/sentence in higher courts within 3 months of the date of judgment by the trial court.
• However, Supreme Court in July 2013 struck down section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951 and declared it ultra vires and held that the disqualification takes place from the date of conviction. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION: 

GST COUNCIL: 

1. GST council was established with 101st Constitutional Amendment in the year 2016
2. It is a Constitutional body under Article 279-A formed by the President. Hence, statement (1) is correct. 
3. The Finance Minister acts as the Chairman of the GST Council. Hence, statement (2) is incorrect. 
4. Union Revenue Secretary acts as the Ex-Officio Secretary of Council
5. It includes Finance Ministers of all States and UTs or any Minister such appointed by State Governments 
6. Vice-Chairperson- Is chosen among the member states 
7. Chairperson of Central Board of Excise & Custom (CBEC) is also member but can not vote
8. Quorum constitutes  50% of Strength 
9. Every Decision should be taken by three-fourth majority (75%)  of Present and Voting.
10. As Centre Weightage is  33%, it holds a  Virtual Veto. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect. 
11. It acts as recommendatory body and its decisions are not binding on State Governments as recently upheld by the Supreme Court. Hence, statement (4) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:  

Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG): 

• CAG was held by BR Ambedkar as “the most important officer in Indian Constitution” 
• CAG is appointed by the President for fixed term of 6 years and 65 years, whichever is earlier. 
• CAG has been accorded with Security of tenure by the Constitution as h/she can only be removed in the manner of removal of Judge of Supreme Court. Hence, statement (1) is correct. 
• No Minister can represent CAG in Parliament. Hence, statement (2) is incorrect. 
• CAG Audits: 
• • Consolidated Fund of India & State
  • Contingency Fund of India & State 
  • Public Account of India & State 4. 
  • Trading, Manufacturing  & Profit / Loss of Account of Departments of Central & State bodies 
  • Bodies substantially financed from Centre or State
• He can audit local bodies if requested by Governor. Hence, statement (3) is correct. 
• Certified Net Proceed of Any Tax or Duty and Certificate of CAG is final. Hence, statement (4) is incorrect. 
• CAG is agent of Parliament who ensure responsibility of Executive to Parliament. Thus CAG is only responsible to Parliament.

EXPLANATION: 

CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY: 

• Idea of Constituent Assembly was put forward for first time in 1934 by MN Roy. Hence, statement (1) is correct. 
• Indian National Congress for first time officially demanded Constituent Assembly in Lucknow Session 1936. Hence, statement (2) is incorrect. 
• Demand for Constituent Assembly was accepted for first time in August Offer 1940. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect. 
• Constituent Assembly was formed under provisions of Cabinet Mission 1946. Hence, statement (4) is correct. 
• CA held its first meeting on 9th December, 1946
• Rajendra Prasad acted as Chairman of CA while HC Mukherjee & VT Krishnamachari acted as Vice President.
• The total Strength of Assembly was 389 of which 296 members represented British India & 93 represented Princely states. 
• Each province and princely state were allotted seats in proportion to their population. 
• After the withdrawal of ML member from Pakistan, the strength came down to 299. 
• Representative of each community to be elected by member of that community in Provincial Legislative Assembly. Thus indirectly elected 
• While, Representative of Princely State to be nominated by heads of Princely States - 93
• Thus it was Partly elected &  Partly Nominated body.

EXPLANATION: 

Federalism is a system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. For example, 7th Schedule of Indian Constitution divides power into Centre & state list. 

• FEATURE OF FEDERALISM IN INDIAN CONSTITUTION: 
  • Written Constitution - Written Constitution is a must for Federalism. 
  • Rigidity of Constitution that is  Special Procedure for Amendment under Article 368
  • Independent Judiciary
  • Bicameralism
  • NOTE: Indian Constitution is not supreme as it can be amended by the Parliament however Constitution makers adopted a rigid method under Article 386 of the Constitution. 
• UNITARY FEATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION: 
  • Strong Centre: More Legislative power in 7th Schedule 
  • Single Constitution for both Centre and State unlike USA 
  • Flexibility of Constitution as majority of provisions can be amended by Simple majority 
  • Integrated Judiciary for both Centre and all states 
  • Appointment of State Governor by Centre
  • All India Services under Article 311
  • Emergency Provisions under Article 352-Article 360
  • Thus, option B is correct.