Plutus IAS ‘Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 05 to 10 December, 2022

EXPLANATION:

• India opposed the Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture that sought to minimize greenhouse gas emissions from the agriculture sector. The Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture (KJWA) is a special decision under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that aims to recognize the unique potential of the agriculture sector in addressing climate change. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  
• India held that emissions from the agricultural sectors are not “luxury” emissions but “survival emissions” of the poor. It blamed the developed countries’ historic emissions for the current climate crisis. Currently, agricultural tasks are the livelihood of small and marginal farmers who will find it difficult to make a rapid transition to sustainable agricultural practices. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India pointed out that developed countries owe the world a carbon debt of 790 gigatonnes of carbon dioxide, which is worth 79 trillion USD even at the modest pricing of 100 USD per tonne. South Asia’s historic total carbon emissions from the pre-industrial period until 2019 are less than 4 per cent despite hosting a quarter of the global population. India’s per capita yearly emissions are about one-third of the global average. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Agreement on Port State Measures (PSMA) is the first internationally binding instrument that specifically aims to prevent and eliminate illegal, unreported and unregulated (IUU) fishing by denying port access to foreign vessels that are engaged in or supporting such practices. The Agreement came into force in June 2016. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  
• One in every five fish caught across the world every year originates from IUU fishing. IUU fishing is responsible for the loss of over 11 to 26 million tonnes of fish each year, having an economic value of 10 billion to 23 billion USD. Sustainable fishing is required to maintain the fish stock and preserve the environment and livelihoods of communities that rely on fishing activities. This target was never achieved. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Four African countries – Angola, Eritrea, Morocco and Nigeria – became the new entrants of the PSMA. According to the IUU Fishing Index 2021, Nigeria is among the top 10 worst-performing countries. Currently, over 60 per cent of port countries are globally committed to the PSMA to combat IUU fishing. Around 100 countries that have endorsed the agreement are currently able to exchange information via the PSMA Global Information Exchange System, which was launched by FAO in December 2021. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The UK-India Young Professionals Scheme was announced by British Prime Minister Rishi Sunak at the G20 Summit that was held in Bali, Indonesia. The UK-India Young Professionals Scheme will provide Indians places to work in the United Kingdom for up to two years. It will benefit 3,000 degree-holding Indians aged 18 to 30 years. This scheme will be implemented from the early 2023 on a reciprocal basis. The initiative will strengthen the Mobility Partnership and Migration between the countries as agreed in 2021. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The United Kingdom is currently experiencing labor shortages in industries like hospitality, manufacturing, construction etc. A new study revealed that a three-quarters of the UK businesses were impacted by the labor shortages in the country. The BREXIT was blamed for the exacerbation of the labor shortage concerns. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The new scheme will also reinforce the cultural and economic ties between the United Kingdom and India. A quarter of international students in the United Kingdom are from India. This shows the strong bilateral ties between the two countries. India’s investment in the UK is directly supporting some 95,000 jobs across the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Project 22220 is a series of nuclear-powered icebreakers developed by Russia. It is the fourth icebreaker to be developed under Project 22220. Yakutiya is the fourth in this series. The fifth, named Chukotka, has been laid out at the Baltic Shipyard. The sixth and seventh vessels of this series are currently at the planning stage. These ships will replace the nuclear-powered icebreakers of Projects 10520 and 10580, which are at the end of their service lives or at the brink of being phased out. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Russia recently launched a nuclear-powered icebreaker named Yakutia at Baltic Shipyard in St. Petersburg. This project’s icebreaker is 173.3 meters long and 34 meters broad with a 33,500-tonne displacement. As of November 2022, three Project 22220 icebreakers are in service. These are Arktika, Sibir and Ural. Arktika – the lead ship of this series – was delivered in 2020. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• These nuclear-powered icebreakers are currently the most powerful and the largest in the world. Their purpose is to provide year-round navigation in the western part of the Arctic. They can escort ships on the Northern Sea Route. These icebreakers’ dual-draft design allows them to navigate in ice and in polar river deltas. They are the core of Russia’s civil icebreaker fleet. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Kuki-Chin community is basically from bangladesh. The on-going conflict between Bangladesh security forces and the Kuki-Chin National Army (KNA) triggered an influx of refugees from the Kuki-Chin community to the Indian state of Mizoram. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Kuki-Chin National Army (KNA) is the armed wing of the Kuki-Chin National Front (KNF) – a separatist group that was established in 2008 to create a separate state in Chittagong Hill Tracts (CHT) in Southern Bangladesh. The KNF claims that all members of the Bawm, Pungkhua, Lushai, Khumi, Mro, and Khyang ethnic groups are part of the greater Kuki-Chin race. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Also known as the Bawm Party, this group is having close relationships with rebel groups in Northeast India and Myanmar. The Rapid Action Battalion (RAB) has launched an operation in October 2022 against the Kuki-Chin National Army (KNA) after it entered into an agreement with the newly formed militant outfit called the Jama’atul Ansar Fil Hindal Sharqiya, which originated from the remote hilly terrains of Rangamati and Bandarban. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) has developed a Continuous Marine Water Quality Monitoring Station (CMWQMS) and launched an Electric Environmental Monitoring Vehicle (EV). The Continuous Marine Water Quality Monitoring Station (CMWQMS) was developed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority in collaboration with the IIT Madras’ Department of Civil Engineering. It will be used alongside the electric monitoring vehicle (used for monitoring air quality) to regulate the quality of the environment surrounding the Jawaharlal Nehru Port.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It will help JNPA to reduce the greenhouse gas footprint of vehicles and monitor compliance with environmental quality around the port estate through data like water quality stations data, temperature, pH, dissolved oxygen, ammonia, conductivity, nitrate, salinity, turbidity, and TDS of marine water. Such information and monitoring is vital for maintaining the marine environment’s hygiene standards.Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Jawaharlal Nehru Port, situated in Navi Mumbai, can be accessed via Thane Creek – an inlet in the shoreline of the Arabian sea that isolates Mumbai from the Konkan region of mainland India. It is the second largest container port in the country after the Mundra Port. This port is the terminal of the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• IDFC First Bank, in association with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), recently launched FIRSTAP – India’s first sticker-based debit card. A sticker-based debit card allows the user to make transactions by simply tapping the sticker on near-field communication (NFC)-enabled point-of-sale terminal. It can be used to tap and pay in stores, restaurants and other places without the need to carry a debit card. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The FIRSTAP was launched by the IDFC First Bank in line with its customer-centric philosophy. It is one-third the size of a regular debit card. It can be stuck on any surface of the customer’s choice, like cell phones, identity cards, wallets, tabs, airpod cases etc. It can be stuck on wearable devices like watches and rings as well. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It enables transactions up to Rs.5,000 without a PIN and those beyond that requires the entry of PIN. This sticker debit card comes with a complementary personal accidental cover and 24/7 concierge services. It also includes several RuPay offers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The FSSAI recently released a new draft of Genetically Modified (GM) Food regulations for public consultation. This comes at a time when the issue concerning the genetically modified (GM) mustard is under the spotlight. The new draft is different from the old version that was released by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in November 2021. The recently-released draft aims to simplify the procedure of prior approvals for food that are derived from genetically modified organisms (GMOs). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• If the GMOs are used as food or source material for the production of food, clearance is required from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) – the central government authority responsible for monitoring the environmental risks posed by the GMOs. If the genetically modified organism is used as seeds or for cultivation, the applicant is required to submit an application to the GEAC to comply with the Environment Ministry’s 1989 rules. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Food products having individual 1 percent or more GM ingredients must be labeled as “contains genetically modified organisms”. This label must be at the front of the pack of pre-packaged products. This rule is also applicable to the presence of adventitious or technically unavoidable presence of GM ingredients. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Australian Parliament recently approved the free trade agreement with India. In India, such agreements require approval from the Union Cabinet. The Australia-India Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (AI-ECTA) was signed by the two countries on April 2, 2022. AI-ECTA is the first free trade agreement that India signed with a large developed economy in the last decade. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It will help Australia reduce its dependence on the Chinese market and forge new bilateral trade ties. Under this free trade agreement, Australia will provide zero-duty access to India for some 96.4 per cent (by value) of its exports. This includes products that currently incur 4 to 5 percent customs duty in Australia. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India exported to Australia goods worth 8.3 million USD in 2021-22. India’s imports from Australia were at 16.75 billion USD during this period. The FTA will increase the bilateral trade value from the present 27.5 billion USD to 45-50 billion USD in the next five years. It will enhance people-to-people relations and foster cultural ties between the two countries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Nai Chetana Campaign was launched by the Central Government on the occasion of International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women (November 25). Nai Chetana is a gender campaign launched in all Indian states under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission. Over the next five years, this campaign seeks to build a common understanding and recognition of disadvantages and discrimination faced by women across all levels among community institutions, rural communities and government departments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The theme for this year’s campaign is Gender Based Violence. It will be organized from November 25 to December 23 this year. This nationwide campaign aims to sensitize women, especially those in rural regions, about gender-based violence and make them aware about various institutional mechanisms that are available to help them address such violence. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The campaign will help women identify violence meted out to them due to the normalization of gender-based discrimination and violence. It will create public awareness about redressed mechanisms for victims of violence. It will also help prepare women to raise their voice against gender-based violence and put an end to it at the grassroot level. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• ISRO successfully made the 200th consecutive launch of the multipurpose sounding rocket RH200 from Thiruvananthapuram’s Thumba coast. RH200, which is capable of climbing to a height of 70 km, is a two-stage multipurpose sounding rocket capable of carrying scientific payloads into space. The 200 in the name denotes the diameter of the rocket in millimeters. This 3.5-meter tall rocket belongs to the Rohini rocket family. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is used by ISRO for atmospheric studies. The first and second stages of this rocket are powered by solid motors. This rocket is currently playing a major role in providing a flexible platform for experiments and testing of new technologies. Initially, it used polyvinyl chloride (PVC)-based propellant. The first RH200 to use the new propellant based on hydroxyl-terminated Polybutadiene (HTPB) was launched successfully from the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in 2020. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The first sounding rocket to be launched in India was American Nike-Apache. This historic launch happened on November 21, 1963. Following this, two-stage rockets imported from Russia (M-100) and France (Centaure) were launched. Rohini RH-75 – the first indigenously developed sounding rocket was launched by ISRO in 1967. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Manipur Sangai Festival is being organized from November 21 to 30. The main objective of this annual festival is to promote Manipur as a world class tourism destination. Manipur Sangai Festival is a cultural extravaganza organized every year to showcase the uniqueness of Manipur. It also celebrates Manipur’s state animal, Sangai Deer, which is found only in floating Keibul Lamjao National Park in Loktak Lake. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The 10-day festival promotes the northeastern state’s tourism sector. It showcases the culture and traditions of the state. It was earlier known as the Manipur Tourism Festival. In 2010, it was renamed as Sangai Festival. Manipur’s classical dance form Ras Leela – is a key performance that is organized during this festival. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Another key feature of this festival is indigenous sports. During the festival, sports like Thang Ta (martial arts involving spears and swords), Yubi-Lakpi (rugby-like game played using greased coconut), Mukna Kangjei (game that combines hockey and wrestling) and Sagol Kangjei (polo that is said to have evolved in Manipur) are organized. Hence, statement 3 is correct.