Plutus IAS Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes 06 February to 11 February 2023

EXPLANATION:

• ‘Millets’ were among the first crops to be domesticated in India with several evidence of its consumption during the Indus valley civilization. Being grown in more than 130 countries at present, Millets are considered traditional food for more than half a billion people across Asia and Africa. In India, millets are primarily a kharif crop, requiring less water and agricultural inputs than other similar staples. Millets are important by virtue of its mammoth potential to generate livelihoods, increase farmers’ income and ensure food & nutritional security all over the world. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Recognising the enormous potential of Millets, which also aligns with several UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), the Government of India (GoI) has prioritized Millets. In April 2018, Millets were rebranded as “Nutri Cereals”, followed by the year 2018 being declared as the National Year of Millets, aiming at larger promotion and demand generation. The global millets market is projected to register a CAGR of 4.5% during the forecast period between 2021-2026.
• On 6th December 2022, the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, organized an opening ceremony for the International Year of Millets – 2023 at Rome, Italy. The event was attended by a delegation of senior government officials from India. Next in the series, prior to the year-long celebration of ‘International Year of Millets (IYM) 2023’, the Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare hosted a special ‘Millet Luncheon’ for the Members of the Parliament at the Parliament house. So, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• Spearheaded by the Prime Minister, the Government of India sponsored the proposal for International Year of Millets (IYM) 2023 which was accepted by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). The declaration has been instrumental for the Government of India to be at the forefront in celebrating the IYM. The PM of India, Shri Narendra Modi has also shared his vision to make IYM 2023 a ‘People’s Movement’ alongside positioning India as the ‘Global Hub for Millets’. So, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The women peacekeepers, the single largest all-women platoon from India in recent years, arrived in Abyei Saturday to begin their deployment with the U.N. Interim Security Force for Abyei (UNISFA). Abyei is a disputed zone on the border of South Sudan and Sudan, and has been accorded a "special administrative status. "So statement 1 is incorrect”
• The platoon has been deployed in Abyei as part of the Indian Battalion in UNISFA and is India’s largest single unit of women Peacekeepers in the U.N. Mission since it deployed the first-ever all women’s contingent in Liberia in 2007.
• The United Nations Interim Security Force for Abyei (UNISFA) was established through the United Nations Security Council Resolution 1990 of June 27, 2011. Resolution 1990 made provision for the deployment of 4,200 Ethiopian troops to provide security and protect civilians under imminent threat of violence in the disputed border region. "So statement 2 is correct”
  

  

EXPLANATION:

• The CICA is an intergovernmental organization dedicated to fostering regional cooperation and promoting stability, security, and peace throughout Asia. Thus statement 1 is correct.
• Since June 2006, Almaty, Kazakhstan, has served as the home of the CICA Secretariat. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
• The inaugural CICA summit was held in June 2002, but the proposal for the organization was first presented by Kazakhstan's first president Nursultan Nazarbayev in 1992 at the 47th session of the UN General Assembly.
• The Meeting of the CICA Heads of State and Government is the CICA's highest decision-making body (Summit). Every four years, the CICA Summit is held in order to conduct discussions, assess the state of CICA activities, and establish priorities.
• Every two years, the Meeting of the Ministers of Foreign Affairs must take place.
• Azerbaijan, Bahrain, China, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, Russia, South Korea, and Turkey are just a few of the 27 Asian nations that make up the CICA, together with nine observer governments and five international organizations. To be a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia. Thus statement 3 is correct.
• India is the co-chair of two CICA CBMs, "Development of Secure and Effective Systems of Transportation Corridors" and "Energy Security."

EXPLANATION: 

• The index is a crucial global tool for measuring severe, multifaceted poverty in more than 100 developing nations.
• The OPHI and the UNDP's Human Development Report Office initially introduced it in 2010. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
• The MPI monitors deprivations in 10 indicators spanning health, education and standard of living. The MPI tracks both the incidence and the intensity of poverty. Thus statement 2 is correct.
• The worldwide Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which encompasses more than 100 developing nations, is a measure of acute multidimensional poverty on a global scale.
• India: In India, lower castes or tribes make up five out of every six people who are multidimensionally impoverished.
• The Scheduled Tribe group is the poorest with 65 million of the 129 million people living in multidimensional poverty, making up 9.4% of the population.
• They make up around one-sixth of all Indians who experience multidimensional poverty.
• Scheduled Caste group: Of the 283 million people, 33.3 percent, or 94 million, live in multidimensional poverty.
• Other Backward Class: Out of a total population of 588 million, 160 million members of the Other Backward Class live in multidimensional poverty, which has a lower incidence than that of the Scheduled Caste group but a similar intensity.
• 162 million people, or over 12 percent of the population, in India live in families where the female is the head.

EXPLANATION:

• The Supreme Court of India recently made a significant ruling in a case involving the fundamental right to freedom of speech. In a 4-1 majority decision, the Constitution Bench of the court stated that an individual can seek enforcement of this right not only against the government, but also against other citizens. This ruling expands the grounds for seeking protection of these rights. Hence, statement 1 is  correct. 
• Article 19 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression, and is typically invoked against the state. Some fundamental rights, such as those prohibiting untouchability, trafficking, and bonded labor, are explicitly against both the state and other individuals. The recent Supreme Court ruling extends the right to free speech to include protection against private citizens.  This interpretation brings an obligation on the state to ensure that private entities also abide by Constitutional norms. Hence, statement 2 is  correct.
• The Court referenced the 2017 verdict in Puttaswamy, in which a nine-judge bench unanimously upheld privacy as a fundamental right. The government had argued that privacy is a right enforceable against other citizens and, therefore, cannot be elevated to the status of a fundamental right against the state. Hence, statement 3 is  correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Indian Space Research Organization is working on a space project that will study the sun. The name of the project is Aditya L1. Recently, the ISRO chairman announced that the spacecraft is to be launched in June or July this year. The Aditya spacecraft will study solar magnetic storms and the impact of the solar atmosphere on the earth. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• Aditya will study corona heating. Scientists are yet to find the solution to the million-dollar question. Why is the temperature of the sun’s corona a million kelvins, but the temperature of its core is only thousands of kelvin? This is generally called the corona heating problem. The spacecraft will help Indian space scientists find solutions to the coronal heating problem. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• Aditya will study coronal magnetometry

• The outermost layer of the sun is called Corona. The corona has ionized plasma. These ions carry magnetic fields around them. This makes the corona magnetic. The study of the magnetic field in the corona of the sun is called coronal magnetometry.

• About Aditya L1

• The spacecraft is to study the following:
• Solar Winds: These winds are created due to the expansion of the sun’s plasma

• Photosphere and Chromosphere of the sun
• Corona of the sun
• Energetic particles of the sun. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

EXPLANATION:

• When an investor is buying or selling shares he uses Depository organizations. There are two depository organizations in India. They are NSDL and CDSL. The investors shall buy or sell their shares through these organizations. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• A bank acts as an intermediate between the investor and these organizations. Say an investor sells 1000 Jio shares on January 27, 2023. It may take one or two days for the money to be credited to his account. In the T+1 settlement cycle, this time is one day. NDSL is National Depository Securities Limited. CDSL is Central Depository Service Limited. Hence, statement 2 is  not correct. 
• India is the second biggest economy to move towards a T+1 settlement cycle after China. Here, the T refers to Trading Day. What is settlement? During a settlement, the funds are transferred to the seller’s account and securities are transferred to the buyer’s account. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 
• Pros: Quick fund remittances, improved operational efficiency, and easy delivery of shares. Cons: Time Zone differences, foreign exchange problems, and information flow processes
• Until 2001, the stock markets used weekly settlements. Then T+3 was introduced. In 2003, T+2 was introduced.
• According to SEBI, the T+1 settlement cycle will free up capital. This will increase the availability of funds to collateralize the risks.

EXPLANATION:

• Name of the Event: Krishi – Mahotsav: Pradarshani Evam Prashikshan; held for two days. The literacy rate in rural India is around 73.5%. Most Indian farmers lack knowledge about modern farming methods, organic farming, and effective principles of animal husbandry. To train them in these fields, the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare recently conducted the Krishi Mahotsav. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• During the event, the ministry conducted exhibitions and gave training to farmers. The event was held in Kota, Rajasthan. More than 5,000 farmers participated in the program. The farmers were trained in Horticulture, Agriculture, Animal Husbandry, Organic Farming. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• A special workshop was held on Agriculture Infrastructure Fund. The training was also given on how to use drones and other technologies in agriculture. Private companies displayed their agricultural products. The Ministry had put on stalls that explained agricultural practices. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

EXPLANATION:

• The Gaan Ngai festival is a major event in the state of Manipur, celebrated by the Zeliarong community every year after the harvest season. On January 4, 2023, the community will come together to show their gratitude for a good harvest, pray for a prosperous year ahead, and mark the beginning of the new year with the production of new fire. The festival is a celebration of culture, music, dance, and spiritual rituals that brings the community together in unity and joy. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The Gaan Ngai festival, also known as the Chakan Gaan-Ngai or festival of winter, is an important occasion for the Zeliarong people, as it allows them to come together and celebrate their heritage. The Gaan Ngai festival is more than just a celebration of music and dance. It is a time for the Zeliarong people to express their gratitude for the blessings they have received and to pray for a prosperous future. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• The Gaan Ngai festival is a rich and vibrant celebration of culture and tradition that is deeply meaningful for the Zeliarong people. It is a time for the community to come together and celebrate their way of life, and to honor the gods and their ancestors. It is a celebration of unity, peace, and prosperity, and a time to look forward to a bright and hopeful future. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

EXPLANATION:

• Defense minister Rajnath Singh recently inaugurated the Siyom bridge in Arunachal Pradesh, along with 27 other infrastructure projects completed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO). These projects, costing a total of 724 crore rupees, will significantly improve India’s border infrastructure, particularly along the Chinese border from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The construction of the Siyom bridge and the other infrastructure projects completed by the BRO will greatly benefit the Indian military’s ability to quickly and efficiently deploy troops and equipment to the border regions. This is particularly important in the context of India’s ongoing border tensions with China, as it allows for a more rapid response to any potential threats or hostilities. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The BRO has also connected remote villages, such as Huri Village in Arunachal Pradesh, to the mainland. This connectivity has triggered reverse migration in these areas, with population increases being witnessed due to the availability of basic amenities such as schooling facilities, primary health care centers, electric supply, and employment opportunities, according to the Defence Minister. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

EXPLANATION:

• NTPC Limited and Gujarat Gas Limited (GGL) have commissioned India’s first green hydrogen blending project in the piped natural gas (PNG) network of NTPC Kawas township, Surat. The project, which aims to supply H2-NG (natural gas) to households in the Kawas township, was made possible through the electrolysis of water using power from a 1 MW floating solar project. The first molecule of green hydrogen from the project was set in motion by P. Ram Prasad, head of the project Kawas, in the presence of other senior executives of NTPC Kawas and GGL. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The main advantage of green hydrogen is that it is a clean, renewable fuel that can be used to power a variety of applications, including transportation and electricity generation. It also has the potential to play a significant role in the decarbonization of the energy sector, as it can be used to replace fossil fuels and reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The green hydrogen blending project in Surat is being carried out with the approval of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB). The regulatory body has given permission for a 5% vol./vol. blending of green hydrogen with PNG to start with, with the blending level to be gradually increased to reach 20%. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

EXPLANATION:

• President Droupadi Murmu virtually laid the foundation stone for the 1,000 MW Bikaner Solar Power Project on Tuesday in Jaipur, Rajasthan. The project is being implemented by state-owned energy firm Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited (SJVN) Limited through its subsidiary, SJVN Green Energy Limited (SGEL), and is being developed on 5,000 acres of outright purchased land near the village of Banderwala, district Bikaner in Rajasthan. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The maximum usage charges have been set at Rs. 2.57 per unit, which will provide cheaper electricity to consumers. In addition to helping the government achieve its renewable energy target of 500 GW by 2030, the project will also reduce carbon emissions by 27,85,077 tones. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The development cost of the project is ₹5492 crores, with viability gap funding support of ₹44.72 lakh per megawatt provided by IREDA. SJVN is a leading CPSE under the Ministry of Power with a total project portfolio of approximately 45,000 MW. The company is currently developing 73 hydro, solar, wind, and thermal projects in 13 states in India and in Nepal. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

EXPLANATION:

• The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) has released the Draft Rules for Online Gaming, which have been introduced as an amendment to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021. Online gaming companies in India will be required to register with a self-regulatory body. Only games that have been cleared by this body will be allowed to legally operate in the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Gaming companies will be required to obtain a Random Number Generation Certificate, which is typically used by platforms offering card games to ensure that game outputs are randomly generated and unpredictable. They will also need to obtain a “no bot certificate” from a reputed certifying body, which will confirm that the platform does not use bots or automated processes. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Restrictions on Betting: Online gaming companies will not be allowed to engage in betting on the outcome of games.
• Protection of Female Gamers: Approximately 40-45% of gamers in India are women, making it important to ensure the safety of this segment of the gaming population. The introduction of these rules is seen as a positive step towards comprehensive regulation of the online gaming industry in India. Hence, statement 3 is  not correct.