Plutus IAS ‘Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 12 to 17 December, 2022

EXPLANATION:

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has succeeded in placing nine satellites in multiple orbits using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C54). Earth Observation Satellite (EOS-06) and 8 nano satellites were launched during this mission. The nanosatellites are the Nano Satellite-2 for Bhutan (INS-2B), Anand, Astrocast (four satellites), and two Thybolt satellites. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Earth Observation Satellite-6 (EOS-6) is the third-generation Indian satellite of the Oceansat series launched for monitoring the oceans. It was developed by ISRO in partnership with the Ministry of Earth Sciences and others. This mission is a follow-up to OceanSat-1 or IRS-P4 and OceanSat-2 that were launched in 1999 and 2009 respectively. It is the first in the series to host three ocean observing sensors – the Ocean Color Monitor (OCM-3), Sea Surface Temperature Monitor (SSTM), and Ku-Band scatterometer (SCAT-3). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• INS-2B is a collaborative mission between India and Bhutan. It has 2 payloads – the NanoMx (a multispectral optical imaging payload) and APRS-Digipeater. India provided capacity building assistance for the development of this mission. Bhutanese engineers were provided hand-on training at the UR Rao Satellite Centre, in Bengaluru to build and test satellites as well as process and analyze satellite data. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  

EXPLANATION:

• The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) recently released the World Intellectual Property Indicators 2022. The World Intellectual Property Indicators (WIPI) is an authoritative report that provides an overview of activities in areas of patents, utility models, trademarks, industrial designs, microorganisms, plant variety protection, geographical indications and creative economy. It is released every year by WIPO. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• According to this report, 57.3 per cent of the patent applications filed in India were by non-residents. The share of non-resident applications is very high in countries like Australia (90.8%), Canada (87.3%), the EPO (55.6%), the United States (55.7%), Brazil (80.7%), Indonesia (84.1%), Mexico (93.1%) and Singapore (86.1%). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• India recorded a 16.5 per cent growth in patent grants in 2021. However, the percentage of the pending patent applications has increased to 91.5 percent during the same period. India also witnessed a 6.7 per cent increase in the filing of the number of trademark applications. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  

EXPLANATION:

• The G20 or Group of 20 is an intergovernmental forum of the world's major developed and developing economies.The G20 is the premier forum for international economic cooperation representing around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population.The G20 comprises Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the UK, the US and the European Union (EU).

EXPLANATION:

• Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 amended the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which regulates the functioning of banks and provides details on various aspects such as licensing, management, and operations of banks.
  Earlier, Cooperative banks were under dual regulation by the state Registrar of Societies and the RBI. So these banks escaped the scrutiny despite failures and frauds.
  Parliament brought the changes to the Banking Regulation Act approved by in September 2020 and following are the key provisions of the act:
  (a) It brought cooperative banks under the direct supervision of the RBI. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  (b) Earlier, Reserve Bank of India(RBI) could issue directions only to multi-state cooperative banks. But after the law, RBI after consultations with the concerned state government can supersede the board of directors of cooperative banks.
  (c) The Act treated urban cooperative banks on par with commercial banks. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  (d) Cooperative bank can issue equity shares, preference shares, or special shares to its members or to any other person residing within its area of operation, by way of public issue or private placements with prior approval of the RBI. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  (d) RBI can merge failing banks quickly as non-members of cooperative banks can become shareholders of the bank. As banks can also issue unsecured debentures or bonds with maturity of not less than 10 years.
  

EXPLANATION:

• A climate emergency declaration or declaring a climate emergency is an action taken by governments and scientists to acknowledge humanity is in a climate emergency. The first such declaration was made by a local government in December 2016.
  Since then several countries including New Zealand have declared a ‘climate emergency’ and promised to make their public sector carbon neutral by 2025. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  New Zealand and 33 more countries have declared a climate emergency. Countries like Japan, Canada, the United Kingdom, France have declared a ‘climate emergency’.
  “Climate emergency” is based on the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change's findings that to avoid more than 1.5 degree Celsius rise in global warming, emissions would need to fall by around 45 percent from 2010 levels by 2023, and eventually reach zero by around 2050.
  In South Asia, only Bangladesh has made a ‘climate emergency’ declaration. India has not made such a declaration. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 

EXPLANATION:

• India’s first Gender Data Hub shall be established by a collaboration between the UN women’s wing and the Kerala government. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  India’s first Gender Data Hub launched on the second edition of the international conference on ‘Gender Equality’. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  The Gender Data Hub is established for greater international engagement on gender equality and women empowerment. One of the important functions of this platform is to provide unlimited opportunities for aspiring women entrepreneurs. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP): It is a set of emergency measures that kick of once air quality reaches a certain threshold to prevent further deterioration of air.
  (a)Activating Stage 1 of GRAP: When AQI is in the ‘poor’ category (201 to 300).
  (b)Activation of second stage: Three days ahead of the AQI reaching the ‘very poor’ category (301 to 400).
  (c)Activation of third stage: When air quality is in ‘severe’ category (401 to 450).
  (d)Fourth stages will be activated when air quality is in ‘severe +’ category (above 450). Measures being imposed under the previous categories will continue even when the subsequent category is activated. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• GRAP was based on Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) paln submitted in November 2016.
  Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notified the GRAP in January 2017. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) revised the Graded Response Action Plan in early 2022.
  In 2017 notification of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change made Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority for the NCR implementing agency. Now, the GRAP is being implemented by the CAQM. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The older version of the GRAP was enforced based only on the concentration of PM2.5 and PM10. This year, GRAP is being enforced based on the AQI, which takes other pollutants also into account, such as ozone, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  

EXPLANATION:

• • The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) tracks countries’ efforts to combat climate change. As an independent monitoring tool, it aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables the comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
    The Climate Change Performance Index is an independent monitoring tool to track countries' climate protection policies. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
  • India has been ranked amongst top 5 countries in the world, and the best among the G20 countries, based on its Climate Change performance. India jumps 2 spots higher, and is now ranked 8th as per Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI, 2023) published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
  • Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI 2023) puts India at best among G-20 countries. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• SEHAT stands for Social, Endeavour for Health and Telemedicine. The Prime Minister of India Shri Narendra Modi launched SEHAT-Health Insurance Scheme in December 2020.
  The Prime Minister of India has launched the SEHAT-Health Insurance Scheme, a health insurance scheme for the people of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
  It also provides financial cover up to Rs. 5 Lakh per family on a floater basis to all residents of the UT of J & K and an operational extension of PM-JAY to 15 lakh (approximately) additional families.
  It is the world’s largest health insurance/assurance scheme fully financed by the government, provides a cover of Rs 500,000 per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across public and private empaneled hospitals in India.
  It covers the population of Jammu and Kashmir who have not been covered by the Ayushman Bharat PM Jan Arogya Yojana Scheme. Hence, option(a) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Melocanna baccifera is a tropical bamboo species. It is known as ‘Muli’ in northeast India. It is native to the northeast India-Myanmar region (Bangladesh, Myanmar, India, and Thailand) and is the largest fruit-producing bamboo.
• Melocanna baccifera is associated with of ‘bamboo death,’ ‘rat floods’ and famines in northeast India.
• Other facts about Melocanna baccifera:
  (a)It is one of two bamboo species belonging to the Melocanna genus.
  (b)It grows up to 10–25 m tall.
  (c)It is an invasive species
  (d)Due to its long and vigorous rhizomes it can occupy large areas.
  Hence, all statement are correct.

EXPLANATION:

• An 11th-century marvel which is known among locals as “love temple” is the Rajarani Temple of Bhubaneswar. The temple is coloured with red and yellow sandstone, which are locally referred to as “Rajarani". It is believed that the temple was once the abode of Lord Shiva and was known as Indreshwar Temple. Besides, the erotic carvings of couples and women also have its share as to why this temple is called Rajarani. What is most loved by the travelers is the fine details and the use of Pancharatha style in the form of a raised platform with two intricately carved structures. The absence of images inside the temple makes it tough to describe as to which sect of Hinduism it belongs. However, it is believed to be a part of the Saivite tradition of Hinduism as per the niches. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• Lingaraja Temple - a veritable landmark of Odisha, is known for its religious significance and magnificence architecture. Believed to be built in the 11th-century, this Lord Shiva temple has its description in the Brahma Purana (an ancient scripture) and is esteemed as one of the oldest temples in Bhubaneshwar. The name ‘Lingaraja’ represents the King of Lingas and ‘Linga’ is another form of Lord Shiva. During the month of Phalgun (February-March), the temple receives oodles of devotees, especially on the auspicious day of Shivaratri which is the main festival of Lingaraja Temple. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Konark Sun Temple in Odisha where god Surya showers blessings on its devotees. Having its foundation from the 13th-century CE, the Konark Sun Temple is treasured among the many UNESCO World Heritage Sites across the globe. The temple holds a special meaning where ‘Kona’ means corner and ‘Arka’ means the Sun, which denotes that Surya is revered in the Ark Kshetra. This famous temple of Odisha along with the Jagannath Temple was used by the European sailors in the Bay of Bengal as major landmarks.Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• One of the most popular temples of India is Kamakhya Temple. Lakhs of devotees visit the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, Assam, every year to pay their respect and offer their devotion to the Goddess Kamakhya. It is one of the oldest temples and is the main one in the complex of 10 temples that are adjoining. The shrine is visited by both Hindu as well as tantric devotees. This widely famous temple is renowned for its legendary tales and also its architecture. It is on the Nilachal Hill and is a very large complex with 6 temples and 6 monuments within. It is also famed as the temple of the bleeding Goddess. Legend has it that during the month of June, the waters of the River Brahmaputra turn red because of her menstruating blood. Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• Bharatmala Pariyojana is a new umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing the efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective interventions like the development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes, National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, Border and International connectivity roads, Coastal and Port connectivity roads and Green-field expressways. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
  All projects implemented under Bharatmala are to be technically, financially, and economically appraised by an empowered Project Appraisal & Technical Scrutiny Committee to be set up in the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH). Thus statement 2 is incorrect.
  Key Features of the Scheme:
• Improving the quality of roads:
• The launch of the scheme has been done to bring a new wave of development in the nation in the form of well-maintained and developed roads.
• Total road construction:
• As per the draft of the scheme, the government and the ministry will strive to complete new roads, which will add up to a whopping 34, 800 km.
• Integrated scheme:
• It will include many other related schemes as well. With the completion of all the schemes, the overall success of the scheme will be guaranteed.
• Total tenure of the program:
• The central government has planned to finish the scheme within a span of five years. Thus, all was set for finishing the first phase before the end of 2022. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
  The Bharatmala Pariyojana envisages development of about 26,000 km length of Economic Corridors, which along with Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) and North-South and East-West (NS-EW) Corridors are expected to carry majority of the Freight Traffic on roads.