Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 02 to 07 October, 2023

EXPLANATION:

• MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small RNA molecules (about 21 to 24 nucleotides) that control gene expression in various biological processes. They bind to specific messenger RNAs (mRNAs) in the cell's cytoplasm. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• When miRNAs bind to an mRNA, it can either lead to the mRNA being broken down and recycled or stored for later translation into a protein. This interaction directly affects the levels of proteins produced in the cell.
• While miRNAs do not directly encode proteins, they can play an important role in protein production by regulating the expression of genes that encode proteins. For example, miRNAs can regulate the expression of genes that encode enzymes, transcription factors, and signaling molecules. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• In biology, miRNAs are crucial for development, cell differentiation, growth, and programmed cell death (apoptosis). They help maintain the balance within cells and respond to environmental signals, contributing to the complex network of regulatory mechanisms in living organisms.
• MiRNAs also have significant implications for human health and disease. Changes in miRNA levels can alter the expression of genes involved in various biological processes, contributing to the development and progression of many human disorders.
• MiRNAs are stable in bodily fluids like blood, making them promising biomarkers for diagnosing diseases and providing insights into a person's health status and potential underlying conditions. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP) is an initiative to improve governance and public service delivery in blocks that lag in various development parameters. It was introduced in the Union Budget for 2022-23. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• The program initially covers 500 districts across 31 states and Union Territories, focusing on six states: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• The execution of the ABP involves organising Chintan Shivirs at both village and block levels across the country. These Chintan Shivirs serve as platforms for discussions and brainstorming on strategies to enhance the performance of the aspirational blocks.
• The ABP is based on the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP), launched in 2018. The ADP has successfully improved the performance of districts in several areas, including health, education, and infrastructure. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 

Sankalp Saptaah

• To further accelerate progress and development in these Aspirational Blocks, the ABP culminates in 'Sankalp Saptaah,' a dedicated week to foster momentum and commitment towards achieving the program's goals. 
• This week-long event involves various activities and initiatives to accelerate progress in these blocks.
• The overall objective of the Aspirational Blocks Programme is to address the developmental challenges these blocks face and uplift their socio-economic conditions through targeted efforts and improved governance.

EXPLANATION: 

• Zonal Councils in India are established under the provisions of the States Reorganisation Act 1956. 
• The concept of Zonal Councils was proposed by India's first Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, to address the linguistic hostilities and bitterness emerging from the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• There are five Zonal Councils in India, each representing a specific geographical zone. These councils include:
  • Northern Zonal Council: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and the Union Territory of Chandigarh.
• • Central Zonal Council: Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• • Eastern Zonal Council: Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Sikkim, and West Bengal.
• • Western Zonal Council: Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
• • Southern Zonal Council: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and the Union Territory of Puducherry. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 

• Organisational structure of the Zonal Councils:

• • Chairman, who is the Union Home Minister, 
  • The Vice Chairman is the Chief Minister of one of the member states within the respective zone. 
    • The Chief Ministers of the states included in each zone take turns serving as Vice Chairman for one year.
  • The members of the Zonal Council include-
    • Chief Minister and two other Ministers nominated by the Governor from each state in the zone, along with two members from the Union Territories included in the zone. 
  • Additionally, one person nominated by the Planning Commission (currently by NITI Aayog) is an advisor for each Zonal Council. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• OSIRIS-REx (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, and Security– Regolith Explorer) was a NASA asteroid study and sample-return mission that visited and collected samples from 101955 Bennu, a carbonaceous near-Earth asteroid. 
• It embarked on its journey in September 2016 and reached the vicinity of the near-Earth asteroid Bennu by December 2018. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• In a remarkable manoeuvre in October 2020, OSIRIS-Rex employed a long stick vacuum to conduct a brief touch-and-go operation on the surface of Bennu, successfully collecting a sample from this small, spherical space rock. 
• This valuable sample was then transported back to Earth for comprehensive analysis, a journey that spanned an astonishing 6.2 billion kilometres (4 billion miles).
• In September 2023, NASA's OSIRIS-Rex spacecraft, which had collected asteroid samples from deep space, safely returned to Earth by parachuting a capsule containing pristine asteroid material into the Utah desert, USA. 
• The mission's core objectives encompass unravelling the early history of our solar system, unravelling the asteroid's composition, and procuring surface material known as regolith from Bennu.
• Notably, OSIRIS-Rex represents NASA's third endeavour to retrieve samples from deep space through a robotic spacecraft. While the Genesis spacecraft's 2004 mission to deliver solar wind bits faced challenges due to a parachute failure, the Stardust spacecraft successfully delivered comet dust samples in 2006. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The 'Five Eyes' Intelligence Alliance is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network comprising more than 20 agencies from five English-speaking nations: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• This alliance encompasses both surveillance-based activities and signals intelligence (SIGINT).
• Intelligence documents exchanged among member countries are labelled as 'Secret—AUS/CAN/NZ/UK/US Eyes Only,' from which the alliance derives its name, 'Five Eyes.' Thus, option (c) is correct. 

Background of the Alliance:

• The origins of the alliance between the United States and the United Kingdom can be traced back to the Second World War, when they collaborated to counter the Soviet threat during the Cold War.
• Leveraging their successful code-breaking efforts against German and Japanese codes in World War II, these two nations established a partnership focused on sharing intelligence related to various signals, including radio, satellite, and internet communications.
• In the post-war era, in 1946, this collaboration was formalised through an agreement for cooperation in signals intelligence.
• This treaty, known as the British-U.S. Communication Intelligence Agreement or BRUSA (now called the UKUSA Agreement), was signed between the State-Army-Navy Communication Intelligence Board (STANCIB) of the U.S. and the London Signal Intelligence Board (SIGINT) of Britain.
• Over time, this arrangement expanded to include 'second party' countries, with Canada joining in 1948 and Australia and New Zealand becoming part of the alliance in 1956.

EXPLANATION: 

Global Innovation Index:

• Published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), the Global Innovation Index is a valuable tool for governments worldwide to evaluate the socio-economic transformations driven by innovation in their respective countries.
• In the Global Innovation Index 2023 rankings, India maintains its 40th spot among 132 economies.
• The report highlights that India, along with Iran, the Philippines, Turkey, Vietnam, and Indonesia, is among the economies within the GII top 65 that have shown the most significant improvement in rankings over the past decade.
• India is recognised as one of the 21 economies that have consistently outperformed in innovation relative to their level of development for the 13th consecutive year.
• India holds the leading position in the Central and Southern Asia region for categories such as Human capital and research (48th), Business sophistication (57th), and Knowledge and technology outputs (22nd).
• Strong indicators for India include ICT services exports (5th), Venture capital received (6th), Graduates in science and engineering (11th), and Global corporate R&D investors (13th).
• The top 5 countries in the rankings are Switzerland, Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom (4th), and Singapore (5th). Thus, option (c) is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body formed to advise the Government of India on economic and related matters, specifically to the Prime Minister. It was established for the first time in September 2017 for a two-year term. 
• The main objectives of the EAC-PM are to analyse economic issues referred to by the Prime Minister, provide advice on macroeconomic concerns, and present recommendations on these matters. The Council can also undertake tasks as requested by the Prime Minister. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The composition of the EAC-PM includes a Chairperson and other distinguished economists as members. A team of officials and administrators supports the Council, and the number of members and staff may vary. 
• Over time, the EAC-PM has been reconstituted with different organisational structures led by renowned economists.
• The NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for the EAC-PM's administrative, logistic, planning, and budgeting purposes. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Prachand is an indigenously developed Light Combat Helicopter (LCH). It was developed by the state-run aerospace major Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. Thus, option (a) is not correct. 
• This multi-role attack helicopter has been customised to meet the requirements of the Indian armed forces, allowing it to operate in desert terrains and high-altitude sectors. Thus, option (c) is not correct. 
• Prachand is the world's only attack helicopter capable of landing and taking off at 5,000 meters (16,400 feet). Thus, option (d) is not correct. 

Features of Prachand:

• It has a 5.8-tonne twin-engine called the Shakti engine, designed primarily for high-altitude deployment. Prachand has a maximum speed of 268 kilometres per hour. The helicopter boasts a range of 550 kilometres and an endurance of over three hours. Thus, option (b) is correct. 
• It incorporates advanced stealth features, armoured shield systems, and dark-mode attack capability. Prachand is equipped with crash-resistant landing gear, enhancing its survivability and technologies like radar and IR signature.
• The helicopter features a pressurized cabin that offers protection from nuclear, biological, and chemical contingencies. It is also equipped with a countermeasure dispensing system that safeguards it from enemy radars and infrared seekers of enemy missiles.
• Prachand's weapon complement includes a 20mm nose gun in the front, capable of firing 800 rounds per minute with a range of up to 2 kilometres.

EXPLANATION: 

• Dachigam National Park, situated 22 kilometres from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir, spans an area of 141 square kilometres. Established to secure a clean water supply for Srinagar city, it has been a protected area since 1910 and attained national park status in 1981. The park ranges in elevation from 5,500 feet to 14,000 feet. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• The name "Dachigam" translates to 'ten villages,' possibly commemorating the relocation of ten villages to establish the park. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Dachigam National Park is renowned as the last refuge of the Hangul, also known as the Kashmir stag, and houses the world's only surviving population of this vulnerable species. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 
• Its terrain varies from gently sloping grasslands to cliffs and rugged rocky outcrops.
• The park's flora includes various species, such as wild cherry, apple, pear, peach, plum, apricot, chestnut, willow, walnut, oak, pine, birch, poplar, chinar, and elm.
• Dachigam is home to various wildlife, including musk deer, leopard, Himalayan Grey Langur, leopard cat, Himalayan Black Bear, and yellow-throated marten.
• It also provides a habitat for raptors like the Eurasian eagle owl, Lammergeier, Eurasian griffon, and white-rumped vulture.

EXPLANATION:

• The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, enacted in 2012, is India's pioneering legislation addressing child sexual abuse. 
• The primary objective of the Act is to safeguard individuals under the age of 18 from sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography-related offences. It also establishes Special Courts to handle such cases and related incidents.

Key Features of the POCSO Act:

• The POCSO Act adopts a gender-neutral approach, defining a child as "any person" under 18. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• It delineates various forms of sexual abuse, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, sexual harassment, and pornography.
• The Act designates certain circumstances that escalate sexual assault, such as when the victim is mentally ill or when the offender holds a position of trust or authority over the child, like a family member.
• Individuals involved in trafficking children for sexual purposes are also held accountable under the Act, particularly under provisions related to abetment.
• Attempts to commit offences covered by the Act are punishable, with penalties of up to half the prescribed punishment for the actual offence.
• The Act does not impose any time limit for reporting abuse, allowing victims to report incidents even years after they occur. Reporting sexual abuse becomes a legal duty, and failure to do so may lead to a six-month imprisonment or a fine. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The administration of the POCSO Act falls under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD). Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Credit Information Companies (CICs), or Credit Bureaus, play a crucial role in gathering and managing financial data related to individuals and businesses, including their credit transactions and payment histories involving loans, credit cards, and more. 
• Their primary responsibility revolves around aggregating information from diverse sources, including banks, financial institutions, lenders, and other entities engaged in extending credit.
• Banks and non-banking financial institutions rely heavily on the reports and credit scores generated by CICs to assess the creditworthiness of potential borrowers before granting loans or issuing credit cards. 
• In India, the operations of CICs are subject to regulation by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), primarily through the Credit Information Companies Regulation Act, 2005 (CICRA), along with various other guidelines and directives issued by the RBI. Thus, statement I is correct. 
• According to Section 15 of the CICRA, it is mandatory for all Credit Institutions, such as banks, to become members of at least one CIC. Thus, statement II is not the correct explanation.
• Additionally, CICRA specifies that CICs can access and acquire information exclusively from their member institutions. Consequently, when a bank seeks information from a CIC, it can access data contributed by other member institutions to the CIC.
• As of the present, the RBI has granted registration certificates to four major credit information companies in India, which are as follows:
  • Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited (CIBIL)
  • Equifax Credit Information Services Private Limited
  • Experian Credit Information Company of India Private Limited
  • CRIF High Mark Credit Information Services Private Limited

EXPLANATION:

Nuakhai (Odisha)

• Nuakhai is an annual harvest festival celebrated in Odisha to welcome the new rice of the season. 
• It is observed on the fifth day of the lunar fortnight in the month of Bhadrapada or Bhadraba (typically falling in August-September), immediately following the Ganesh Chaturthi festival. 
• Nuakhai holds great social significance in Western Odisha and neighbouring areas, including Simdega in Jharkhand. Thus, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 

Nabanna (West Bengal)

• Nabanna, also known as Naba Khaye, is a harvest festival celebrated in West Bengal to welcome the fresh harvest of rice. 
• It is observed on the fifth day of the lunar fortnight in Agrahayan (usually in November-December). 
• Nabanna is when farmers express gratitude for the bountiful harvest and share their joy with their loved ones. Thus, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 

Onam (Kerala)

• Onam is a ten-day harvest festival celebrated in Kerala to usher in the new rice season. It is celebrated in the Malayalam month of Chingam (typically in August-September). 
• Onam is Kerala's most significant festival, celebrated with grandeur and enthusiasm. Thus, pair 3 is correctly matched. 

Pongal (Tamil Nadu)

• Pongal is a four-day harvest festival celebrated in Tamil Nadu to welcome the arrival of the fresh rice crop. 
• It is observed in the Tamil month of Thai (usually in January-February). Pongal is a time for families to come together and rejoice in the bounty of the harvest. Thus, pair 4 is not correctly matched. 

Baisakhi (Punjab, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh)

• Baisakhi is a harvest festival celebrated in Punjab, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh to mark the commencement of the new rice season. 
• It falls on the first day of the Sikh month of Baisakh (typically in April-May). Baisakhi is a time for farmers to express their gratitude for the harvest and celebrate the start of the new year.