Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 03 to 08 June 2024

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR) has been seeking expressions of interest in collaborating on developing and commercialising a pediatric or low-dose oral formulation of hydroxyurea for treating sickle cell disease in children. This effort focuses on creating a formulation tailored to pediatric patients' demands. 
• Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder where abnormal haemoglobin S causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped, leading to complications. This condition leads to the distortion of RBCs into a sickle or crescent shape, particularly under low oxygen conditions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Sudden and intense pain episodes in sufferers are triggered by the obstruction of blood flow to various body parts caused by cells shaped like sickles. This pain can manifest in the bones, chest, abdomen, and joints. Due to their rigidity, sickle cells are prone to breaking easily, leading to a decrease in red blood cells, known as anaemia. Consequently, individuals may experience symptoms such as tiredness, weakness, and difficulty breathing. 
• Sickle cell anaemia can damage the spleen, an organ that fights infection, making patients more vulnerable to infections. In children, anaemia can slow growth and delay puberty in young.  Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Sickle cell anaemia mostly occurs in people of African descent but also occurs in Hispanic, Middle Eastern, Indian, Latin American, and Mediterranean populations. In the United States, it affects about 1 in 365 African American births and 1 in 16,300 Hispanic American births.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, researchers at the Institute of Advanced Virology (IAV) in Thiruvananthapuram have innovated a method to produce non-infectious particles resembling the Nipah virus (virus-like particles (VLPs)) in a lab setting. 
• VLPs are structures that mimic the appearance of viruses yet are non-infectious due to their lack of viral genetic content. Their strong resemblance to actual viruses means that introducing a VLP into an organism will stimulate an immune reaction. However, the individual will not exhibit any symptoms associated with the virus from which the VLP is designed since it is essentially a harmless mimic. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• They are a highly efficient method for producing vaccines for human papillomavirus (HPV), hepatitis B, and malaria. After the body has mounted an immune response to the VLP, it can identify the virus and ward off future infections, thereby conferring immunity against that specific virus. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• VLPs are tiny particles (20-200 nm) that can infiltrate lymph nodes to activate the immune system during infections. They comprise one or more structural proteins, potentially arranged in layers, and may have an outer lipid envelope covering them, safeguarding the virus's genetic material. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Developing a VLP vaccine involves leveraging various types of cells such as bacterial, yeast, insect, or mammalian. These vaccines are highly effective due to VLPs' ability to elicit a robust immune response, facilitated by their dense presentation of epitopes and their ability to showcase several proteins to the immune system.  
• In cutting-edge applications, VLPs have been utilised as nanodevices for the targeted delivery of active pharmaceutical compounds directly to precise locations and into specific cell types within the body.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Indian Space Research Organisation has developed a Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software called Parallel RANS Solver for Aerospace Vehicle Aero-thermo-dynamic Analysis, also known as PraVaHa. Hence, option B is correct.
• PraVaHa simulates external and internal flows on various launch vehicles, including winged and non-winged re-entry vehicles. PraVaHa stands out for its ability to accurately predict intricate aerodynamic flows and aerothermal pressures, establishing itself as a powerful instrument in the design and analysis of aerospace vehicles.
• Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software is a specialised tool for simulating fluid flow, heat transfer, and related phenomena. This software is critical in various fields, including aerospace, automotive, civil engineering, and energy.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the Karnataka State Department of Archaeology Museums and Heritage uncovered 2,500-year-old rock shelter paintings near Pampa Lake. The discovery of the paintings took place close to Pampa Lake, adjacent to the path that heads towards Anegundi, situated within the confines of the Hampi World Heritage Site. It is believed that these paintings date back approximately 2,500 years. 
• Pamba Lake, known as Pampa Sarovar, is in the Koppal district, close to Hampi in Karnataka. It lies south of the Tungabhadra River. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In Hindu mythology, this is about one of the five revered lakes, collectively known as Panch-Sarovar. These lakes are Man Sarovar, Bindu Sarovar, Narayan Sarovar, Pampa Sarovar, and Pushkar Sarovar. According to Hindu beliefs, Pampa Sarovar holds significant importance as it is believed to be where Pampa, a manifestation of Shiva's spouse Parvati, undertook rigorous penance to demonstrate her loyalty to Shiva. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• This lake is notable for its mention in the Ramayana, where it is identified as the Sarovar, where Shabhari, a genuine follower of Lord Rama, eagerly awaited his arrival. Encircled by hills and temples, the lake is beautifully adorned with lotuses. 
• The Tungabhadra River, a significant watercourse in the southern part of the Indian peninsula, emerges as an important tributary of the Krishna River. Its existence is attributed to the confluence of the Tunga and Bhadra rivers, from which it derives its name. Originating from the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, both the Tunga and Bhadra rivers unite at Koodli within Karnataka's Shimoga district, culminating in the formation of the Tungabhadra River.

EXPLANATION: 

• Bank Clinic, an initiative by the All India Bank Employees Association (AIBEA), aims to assist bank customers with grievance redressal amid the rapid expansion of technology and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines on retail banking. It serves as a non-resolving advice centre, offering guidance on the available solutions according to the RBI's rules. Hence, statement I is not correct.  
• It serves as an additional channel alongside the normal Banking Ombudsman process. Under this initiative, customers can register their complaints on the Bank Clinic website. Within five working days, they will receive a reply detailing their issue's available remedies and relevant RBI guidelines. The goal is to ensure timely and effective redressal of customer issues. It guides customers on available remedies but does not directly resolve queries. Hence, statement II is correct.
• The Bank Clinic fosters positive relationships with customers by providing banks with essential feedback. This feedback pinpoints areas for service improvement.

EXPLANATION: 

• In the Indore constituency of Madhya Pradesh, the "None of the Above" (NOTA) option has significantly impacted by securing second place with a record 2,18,674 votes. 
• It's a choice on the ballot that lets voters show they don't support any candidates running by not selecting them. NOTA allows voters to voice their dissatisfaction with the candidates and lack of endorsement. It allows them to refuse all options while keeping their vote confidential. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The NOTA option debuted during the 2013 Assembly elections in five states—Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi, and Madhya Pradesh—and was utilised in the 2014 general elections. This addition to the voting system resulted from a 2013 Supreme Court directive in the case of PUCL vs. Union of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Election Commission clarified that votes cast as NOTA are counted but are considered ‘invalid votes’. Even if NOTA votes get the most votes in a constituency, the next candidate with the second-most number of votes is declared the winner. Therefore, votes made to NOTA do not change the outcome of an election. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• World No Tobacco Day 2024 is celebrated annually on May 31st. This year’s theme is “Youth step in and speak out #TobaccoExposed.” This theme emphasises empowering young people globally to call on governments to protect them from aggressive tobacco marketing strategies. India ranks second globally in terms of tobacco consumption after China, with approximately 26 crore people estimated to be tobacco users during the 2016-2017 period.  
• Tobacco cultivation results in extensive deforestation, with around 50 million trees being felled annually for curing tobacco leaves globally. This practice depletes the soil, making it unsuitable for other crops. The plant significantly contributes to deforestation, with up to 5.4 kg of wood needed to process just 1 kilogram of tobacco. 
• In India, the estimated number of tobacco users stands at 274.9 million. This includes 163.7 million people who use only smokeless tobacco, 68.9 million who are solely smokers, and 42.3 million who use both smoking and smokeless tobacco. Over one-third of Indian adults, approximately 35%, use tobacco in some form. Among them, 21% use only smokeless tobacco, 9% are exclusive smokers, and 5% use both types of tobacco products.  
• The prevalence of tobacco use varies widely across different states and union territories. For instance, the state of Mizoram has a tobacco use rate as high as 67%, whereas Goa has a much lower rate at 9%. India dedicates about 0.45 million hectares to tobacco cultivation, representing approximately 10% of the global land area used for growing tobacco. In 2022, India produced over 189 million kilograms of flue-cured tobacco. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, West Bengal, Telangana, and Bihar are the primary states involved in tobacco production. Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh contribute approximately 45%, 20%, and 15% to India’s total tobacco production. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The tobacco industry is a significant source of employment in India, employing around 36 million people in farming, processing, manufacturing, and exporting activities. Tobacco considerably contributes to India’s economy, generating approximately Rs 4,402 crores in foreign exchange earnings and Rs 13,853 crores in excise revenue annually. The industry’s total contribution to the national economy is around Rs 18,255 crores.

EXPLANATION: 

• A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) has been signed between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Defence (MoD) to enhance cooperation in managing a dedicated section of Tele MANAS. 
• In October 2022, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare unveiled the Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative. The program is designed to offer around-the-clock, free telemental health services, focusing on those residing in remote or underserved regions.
• The Tele-MANAS initiative is structured as a dual-level approach. The first level involves state Tele-MANAS units that feature a team of skilled counsellors and mental health experts. The second level will include experts from the District Mental Health Programme (DMHP) and Medical College facilities, providing in-person and audiovisual consultations through e-Sanjeevani.
• Currently, 51 Tele-MANAS cells are operational across all 36 States and Union Territories, providing services in 20 languages. As part of this initiative, a 24/7 toll-free helpline (14416) is available, enabling callers to choose their preferred language to access services. Hence, option D is not correct. 
• Additionally, services can be accessed via another number, 1-800-891-4416. Calls to this service will utilise an interactive voice response system (IVRS) that operates on audio calls alone and features a prompt auto-call-back system.
• If the caller requires specialised care, the call will be handled by a mental health specialist (clinical psychologist, psychiatric social worker, psychiatric nurse, or psychiatrist). This level of service will contain both audio and video-based options.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the "Air of the Anthropocene" initiative employed light painting techniques to illuminate the issue of air pollution in India, Ethiopia, and the United Kingdom. This called attention to the significant health dangers it poses and ignited worldwide conversations about our air quality. 
• The "Air of the Anthropocene" project represents a global effort combining art and science to depict air pollution using visual light painting methods. This initiative brought together artists and scientists, who worked to create visual documentation by employing digital light painting methods and affordable air pollution measuring devices. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Particulate matter, commonly known as PM, constitutes a diverse blend of tiny particles and liquid droplets that float in the air. This mixture encompasses organic and inorganic elements, including dust, pollen, soot, smoke, and various droplets. These components greatly differ in terms of size, composition, and source. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Particulate matter, especially PM2.5, is associated with severe health problems such as cardiovascular diseases, strokes, and respiratory conditions, representing a major global cause of illness and death.

EXPLANATION: 

• The 'State of Ocean Report, 2024' released by UNESCO offers important perspectives on the condition of the world's oceans today, highlighting the significant threats from human activities and climate change. This report, and its subsequent annual editions released on World Oceans Day (June 8), aligns with the seven outcomes of the UN Ocean Decade.
• The 'State of the Ocean Report' by UNESCO, launched by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC-UNESCO) at the 2022 United Nations Ocean Conference, provides an easily understandable summary of the oceans' current condition. This report aids in overseeing the UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development (2021–2030) and promotes initiatives to achieve a sustainable future for our oceans. 
• According to the report, ocean warming in the upper 2,000 meters has doubled from 0.32 ± 0.03 W/m² from 1960 to 2023 to 0.66 ± 0.10 W/m² in the recent two decades. Oceans absorb 90% of Earth's excess heat, leading to more deoxygenation and risks to marine life and economies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The report highlights that ocean acidification is increasing globally, especially in the vast expanses of the open ocean, where a significant decrease in pH levels has been observed since the late 1980s; there's a pressing need for better data covering coastal regions. Additionally, since 1993, sea levels have consistently risen, highlighting the need for enhanced monitoring systems across all geographic scales. Hence, statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is not correct.