Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 03July to 08 July, 2023

EXPLANATION:

• Red tide refers to the occurrence of large concentrations of harmful algae species, such as dinoflagellates, in aquatic environments. These algae can produce toxins that are harmful to marine organisms and even humans. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• During a red tide, the high concentration of toxic algae can release harmful substances into the water, causing adverse effects on marine life. The toxins can impair the functioning of gills, disrupt the nervous system, and lead to the death of fish, shellfish, marine mammals, and other aquatic organisms. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The toxins produced by certain species of algae during a red tide can be harmful to humans. Inhalation of aerosolized toxins can cause respiratory irritation and can trigger symptoms such as coughing, sneezing, and itchy eyes. Additionally, consuming contaminated seafood, such as shellfish that have accumulated the toxins, can lead to gastrointestinal issues, including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Financial Stability Report (FSR) in India is released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI is the central banking institution in India responsible for overseeing the country's monetary policy and regulating the financial system. As part of its mandate, the RBI publishes the Financial Stability Report biannually.
• The Financial Stability Report provides an assessment of the stability and resilience of the Indian financial system. It analyzes various aspects of the financial sector, including banks, non-banking financial institutions, and other systemic risks. The report assesses the health of the financial system by examining factors such as credit risk, liquidity risk, market risk, and interconnectedness among financial institutions.
• By publishing the Financial Stability Report, the RBI aims to enhance transparency and promote informed decision-making in the financial sector. The report helps policymakers, regulators, and market participants to understand the current state of the financial system, identify potential risks and vulnerabilities, and take appropriate measures to ensure financial stability.

EXPLANATION:

• The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is not intended to replace the Hubble Space Telescope. Instead, it is designed to complement Hubble's capabilities by observing the universe in infrared light, providing a deeper view into the cosmos. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• While the Hubble Space Telescope primarily observes visible light, the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is specifically designed to operate in the infrared part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Its instruments are optimized to capture and analyze infrared light from celestial objects, allowing scientists to study the early universe, distant galaxies, and star formation. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• The James Webb Space Telescope is indeed an international collaboration. NASA leads the project in partnership with the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA). Each agency has made significant contributions to the telescope's development, including its scientific instruments and overall mission support. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The President of India does not have the power to directly remove a Supreme Court judge. The process of removal of a Supreme Court judge involves an impeachment motion initiated by either House of Parliament. The motion must be passed by a special majority and on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity. It is then presented to the President for approval. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The salaries and allowances of Supreme Court judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, as mandated by the Constitution. This provision ensures the financial independence of the judges and safeguards them from external influences or pressures that may arise due to financial dependencies. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• Transfers of judges are carried out by the Chief Justice of India, in consultation with a collegium of judges, which includes the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The primary objective of the SWAMIH fund is to offer financial support to stalled affordable and mid-income housing projects in India. It aims to ensure the completion of these projects, which have been delayed or stalled due to various reasons such as financial constraints, legal issues, or regulatory challenges. By providing the necessary financial assistance, the fund aims to revive these projects and address the concerns of homebuyers. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The SWAMIH fund operates through both debt and equity investments. It provides financial assistance to eligible projects through a combination of debt financing and equity investments. The fund offers construction financing and can also acquire distressed assets from developers. The aim is to provide last-mile funding and support the completion of stalled affordable and mid-income housing projects. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a regional intergovernmental organization consisting of nine member states. The current member states include China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan and now Iran. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The SCO was established on June 15, 2001, in Shanghai, China, with the primary objective of fostering economic, political, and security cooperation among its member states. It aims to strengthen regional stability, security, and development through various means of cooperation and dialogue. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• India and Pakistan were granted full membership in the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) at the SCO Astana Summit held in Kazakhstan in June 2017. Prior to that, both countries had been observers in the organization since 2005. The inclusion of India and Pakistan expanded the SCO's reach and influence in South Asia. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Anti-Defection Law applies to both national-level elected representatives (Members of Parliament) as well as elected representatives at the state level (Members of Legislative Assembly). It is applicable to both national and state legislatures. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The decision on disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is not taken by the Election Commission of India. It is the presiding officer of the concerned legislative body (Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker/Chairman of the State Legislative Assembly/Council) who decides on disqualification based on the recommendations of the party concerned or on a petition by any other member. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Anti-Defection Law exempts the election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from its provisions. This exemption allows these positions to be occupied by members who may have defected from their original parties without attracting disqualification. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was not established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The NGT Act was enacted to provide a specialized forum for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental issues. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The NGT has the power to hear and decide cases pertaining to environmental issues and disputes. It has jurisdiction over matters related to the prevention and control of environmental pollution, conservation of natural resources, and the enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The Chairperson of the NGT is appointed by the Central Government and must be a person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of a High Court. While it is not explicitly mentioned that the Chairperson must be a retired Chief Justice of India, the eligibility criteria require the person to have served as a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of a High Court. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Enforcement Directorate's primary objective is to enforce economic laws and combat financial crimes in India. It focuses on investigating and prosecuting cases related to money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and other economic offenses. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The Enforcement Directorate does not operate under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. The Directorate's activities are primarily related to economic and financial offenses, and it works in coordination with other law enforcement agencies and regulatory bodies. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Director of the Enforcement Directorate is not appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India. Instead, the Director is appointed by the Central Government, specifically the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005. The Act mandates the creation of information commissions at the central and state levels to promote transparency and ensure citizens' right to access information held by public authorities. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• One of the primary responsibilities of the CIC is to monitor and oversee the implementation of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. It ensures that public authorities comply with the provisions of the Act, facilitates the resolution of RTI-related disputes, and promotes transparency and accountability in the functioning of government bodies. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The appointments of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners of the CIC are made by the President of India. The President appoints them on the advice of a committee, which typically includes the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Precision fermentation is a cutting-edge technology that enables the production of specific compounds using microbial fermentation processes. It involves the use of genetically modified microorganisms or cell cultures to produce a wide range of products, including proteins, enzymes, flavors, fragrances, and other high-value ingredients.
• Precision fermentation is a technology that utilizes microbial fermentation processes to produce specific compounds, including proteins, enzymes, and other ingredients. It involves the use of genetically engineered microorganisms to optimize the production of desired substances. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• Precision fermentation has the potential to provide a sustainable and efficient alternative to traditional agricultural methods for the production of animal-based products. By producing proteins and other ingredients through fermentation, it reduces the need for large-scale animal farming, which can have significant environmental and ethical implications. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• Precision fermentation often involves the use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to optimize the fermentation process and increase the production of desired compounds. Genetic modifications can be made to microorganisms to enhance their ability to produce specific proteins or ingredients efficiently. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• "United for Consensus" is a group of countries that opposes the expansion of the United Nations Security Council. They advocate for a different approach to the Council's reform, rather than expanding its membership. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The "United for Consensus" group opposes the inclusion of new permanent members with veto power in the United Nations Security Council. They argue that the veto power of the existing permanent members already hampers decision-making processes and that further expansion of permanent members with veto power could exacerbate this issue. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• Italy, Pakistan, Mexico, and Egypt are among the countries associated with the "United for Consensus" group. These countries, along with several others, have come together to form this group to present a united stance on the reform of the United Nations Security Council. Thus, statement 3 is correct.