Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 06 to 11 November, 2023

EXPLANATION:

Guindy National Park: 

• Guindy National Park is a unique protected area within the city limits of Chennai, Tamil Nadu. 
• It is one of the smallest national parks in the country, but it is also one of the most biodiverse. The park is home to various plant and animal species, including deer, leopards, and Indian peacocks. Thus, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 

Panna Tiger Reserve:

• Panna Tiger Reserve is a protected area located in the Panna district of Madhya Pradesh. 
• It is one of the most important tiger reserves in the country, and it is home to a population of over 100 Bengal tigers. 
• In addition to tigers, Panna Tiger Reserve is also home to various other wildlife, including leopards, sloth bears, and chinkaras. Thus, pair 2 is correctly matched. 

Mudumalai Tiger Reserve:

• Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is a protected area located in the Nilgiri Mountains of Tamil Nadu. It is one of the oldest and most prominent tiger reserves in the country. 
• Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is home to various plant and animal species, including tigers, elephants, and gaur. Thus, pair 3 is not correctly matched. 

Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary:

• Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in the Nallamala Hills of Andhra Pradesh. 
• It is home to various plant and animal species, including tigers, leopards, and sloth bears. 
• Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is also known for its unique geological formations, such as the Belum Caves, the second-longest caves in India. Thus, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

EXPLANATION: 

• • The Indian Parliament enacted the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 (DV Act) on September 13, 2005.
  • It aims to protect wives and female live-in partners from violence by husbands, male live-in partners, or their relatives. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
  • Domestic violence, under the Act, includes physical, sexual, verbal, emotional, and economic abuse, along with dowry-related harassment. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Eligibility Under the Act:
• • The Act covers all women, including mothers, sisters, wives, widows, and live-in partners in shared households, whether by marriage or adoption. It also includes families living jointly.
• Filing a Complaint:
• • Any woman alleging domestic violence can file a complaint. In the case of a child, the mother can apply on their behalf.
  • Female relatives of the husband or male partner cannot file complaints against the wife or female partner. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• Against Whom a Complaint Can Be Filed:
• • Complaints can be made against adult males in domestic relationships with the woman and relatives of the husband or male partner, including both male and female relatives.
• Available Remedies:
• • Women can seek Protection Orders, Residence Orders, Monetary Orders for maintenance, temporary child custody, and Compensation Orders.
  • Criminal action occurs if court-issued relief is breached.

EXPLANATION: 

• Environmental DNA (eDNA) comprises genetic material released by organisms during their life or after death. It originates from materials they naturally shed into aquatic or terrestrial environments, like skin cells or excrement. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• This non-invasive method employs modern molecular techniques to sample and monitor eDNA in various environments, including water, soil, or air.
• It allows for a comprehensive assessment of ecosystem biodiversity by sequencing DNA fragments in environmental samples.
• This method can detect various organisms, from viruses, bacteria, and archaea to eukaryotes like fungi, plants, insects, birds, fish, and other animals.
• Scientists can extract eDNA from environmental samples, read their sequences, and pinpoint the sources of eDNA.
• Environmental DNA facilitates early detection of invasive species and the identification of elusive or rare species. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• It also enables the detection of human remains using eDNA analysis.

EXPLANATION: 

• Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), established through a collaboration between four prominent public-sector entities - NTPC Limited, Power Finance Corporation Limited, REC Limited, and POWERGRID Corporation of India Limited - is backed by the Ministry of Power, Government of India. 
• It received its registration under the Companies Act, 1956, on December 10, 2009.
• EESL's primary mission is to facilitate and sustain the adoption of energy-efficient technologies, especially within public infrastructure, such as municipalities, buildings, agriculture, and industry. 
• EESL spearheads market-driven activities for the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE).
• It actively implements various initiatives from the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, the Ministry of Power, and the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy. Thus, option (b) is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) developed in-house software named 'ENCORE' for comprehensive candidate and election management.
• ENCORE, which stands for 'Enabling Communications on Real-time Environment,' streamlines tasks for Returning Officers, including processing candidate nominations, affidavits, voter turnout, counting, results, and data management.
• The ENCORE counting application is a complete tool for digitising polled votes, tabulating round-wise data, and generating various statutory counting reports.
• Another application within ENCORE, the Scrutiny Application, empowers Returning Officers to scrutinise online nominations. After verification, the nomination status is marked as Accepted, Rejected, or Withdrawn, aiding in preparing the final list of contesting candidates and symbol allocation.
• ECI offers an online portal for nomination and affidavit submission. Candidates can create accounts, fill out nomination forms, deposit security, and plan visits to the Returning Officer. The online submission simplifies the process, as candidates need only print, notarise, and submit the application with relevant documents in person.
• The Candidate Affidavit portal displays information about candidates' financial status, assets, and liabilities.
• The ENCORE Nodal App facilitates collaboration with various departments, such as fire, education, police, environment, and CPWD, by issuing 'no objection' certificates for permissions requested by political parties or candidates to conduct rallies, road shows, and meetings. Thus, option (b) is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Bulava Ballistic Missile is a recently developed Russian Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) designed for submarine launch.
• Its development began in 1998, with the first powered flight test occurring in September 2005, followed by the first submerged test launch in December. 
• This missile is intended for deployment on Russia's Borey-class ballistic missile submarines (SSBNs). Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Features of Bulava:
• • The Bulava is a crucial component of Moscow's nuclear triad, boasting a range of over 8,000 kilometres (approximately 5,000 miles).
  • It measures 12-13.5 meters in length with a diameter of around 2.0 meters and a launch weight of 36,800 kilograms.
  • The missile operates on a three-stage solid-fuel propulsion system and is designed to carry multiple warheads. Each warhead can target different locations.
  • It can transport six Multiple Independent Re-entry Vehicles (MIRVs) capable of in-flight manoeuvring and re-targeting to evade enemy air defences.
  • The Bulava is reported to have an accuracy of 350 meters.
• Ballistic missile
• • A ballistic missile is a rocket-propelled, self-guided strategic weapon system that follows a ballistic trajectory from its launch site to a predetermined target.
• Cruise missiles, similar to aeroplanes, are unmanned jet engine-powered vehicles capable of launching from ground, air, or sea platforms. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• • A series of rocket stages initially propel these missiles but later follow an unpowered trajectory that arches upwards before descending toward their target.
  • Ballistic missiles can carry either nuclear or conventional warheads.

EXPLANATION: 

• Tribal Youth Exchange Programme - 2022 is hosted by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in partnership with the Ministry of Home Affairs in New Delhi. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Since 2006, the Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan has spearheaded the Tribal Youth Exchange Programme, a collaborative effort supported by the Department of Left Wing Extremism (LWE) under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. 
• In the fiscal year 2022-23, NYKS is organising 26 Tribal Youth Exchange Programmes nationwide.
• The primary goal of this initiative is to raise awareness among LWE Tribal Youth about India's rich cultural heritage. 
• It also seeks to instil an appreciation for the concept of unity in diversity, expose them to various developmental activities and industrial advancements, and help tribal youth form emotional connections with their counterparts from different parts of the country, thus enhancing their self-esteem. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The UNEP Adaptation Gap Report (AGR) series presents an annual evidence-based evaluation of the worldwide advancement in adaptation planning, funding, and execution.
• Introduced in 2014, the report's objective is to provide essential information to policymakers and stimulate both domestic and international adaptation endeavours. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• AGR delves into potential strategies for amplifying these climate adaptation initiatives.
• The AGR is a collaborative effort involving UNEP, the UNEP Copenhagen Climate Centre (UNEP-CCC), and the World Adaptation Science Programme (WASP). Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Other significant reports by UNEP include the Emissions Gap Report and the Global Environment Outlook.
• Adaptation Gap Report 2023 

• • Climate adaptation finance from multilateral and bilateral sources fell by 15% to around $21 billion in 2021. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
  • Despite commitments made at the 26th Conference of Parties to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, aiming to double 2019 adaptation finance to $40 billion per year by 2025, the adaptation finance gap is growing at $194-366 billion annually.
  • Adaptation finance requirements are 10-18 times higher than current international public flows, surpassing previous estimates by 50%.
  • Five out of six UN Framework Convention Parties have established national adaptation plans, with some having multiple instruments to update initial ones.

EXPLANATION:

• The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was established in 2004 to promote collaboration among cities that prioritise creativity as a strategic element for sustainable urban development. This global network includes 350 cities spanning over a hundred countries.
• The UCCN aligns with UNESCO’s goals of promoting cultural diversity and strengthening urban resilience in facing challenges like climate change, inequality, and rapid urbanisation.
• The network's seven creative fields are:
  • Crafts and Folk Art
  • Design
  • Film
  • Gastronomy
  • Literature
  • Media Arts
  • Music
• Indian cities designated by UNESCO as part of the Creative Cities Network:
  • Jaipur for Crafts and Folk Arts (2015)
  • Varanasi for Music (2015)
  • Chennai for Music (2017)
  • Mumbai for Film (2019)
  • Hyderabad for Gastronomy (2019)
  • Srinagar for Crafts and Folk Arts (2021)
  • Gwalior for Music (2023)
  • Kozhikode for Literature (2023). Thus, pair 3 and pair 4 are correctly matched.

EXPLANATION: 

• The UN Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (OHCA), established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1991, is crucial in bringing together humanitarian actors to ensure a coherent and coordinated response during emergencies. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• It provides a framework that allows each actor to contribute effectively to the overall response effort. This office replaced the Office of the United Nations Disaster Relief Coordinator (UNDRO). Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• To enhance coordination in international response activities during sudden-onset emergencies or complex situations, OCHA utilises On-Site Operations Coordination Centres (OSOCC) as a valuable tool.
• OCHA manages two main types of pooled funds: the Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF), which can provide emergency funding globally, and Country-Based Pooled Funds (CBPFs), specific to particular countries.
• OCHA operates with two headquarters in Geneva and New York, serving as global centres for humanitarian operations.

EXPLANATION:

• White Hydrogen: 
• • Also referred to as "natural," "gold," or "geologic" hydrogen, it is naturally occurring in the Earth's crust and is considered a clean energy source. 
  • Typically, it is found in combination with other molecules and offers advantages like zero CO2 emissions when used as fuel, compatibility with existing infrastructure, cost-effectiveness, abundance, and renewability. 
  • Deposits of white hydrogen have been discovered worldwide, making it widely available. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• Grey Hydrogen: 
• • Grey Hydrogen is produced through coal or lignite gasification (black or brown) or the steam methane reformation (SMR) of natural gas or methane. 
  • Unfortunately, these processes are carbon-intensive, leading to significant emissions. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 
• Blue Hydrogen: 
• • Created by the gasification of natural gas or coal, blue hydrogen production incorporates carbon capture storage (CCS) or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to reduce carbon emissions, making it a cleaner option than grey hydrogen. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• Green Hydrogen: 
• • This type of hydrogen is generated through water electrolysis, using electricity sourced from renewable energy, like wind, solar, or hydropower. 
  • It is the most environmentally friendly form of hydrogen as it produces no direct carbon emissions during production. It is crucial to the transition to a more sustainable hydrogen economy.

EXPLANATION:

• The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) was established on June 1, 2016, under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013, specifically to hear appeals against orders issued by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). 
• It is a dedicated and efficient forum for addressing legal matters related to company law, insolvency, and competition law.
• The key functions of the NCLAT include hearing appeals against orders passed by– 
• National Company Law Tribunal
• Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India 
• Competition Commission of India (CCI)
• National Financial Reporting Authority
• The headquarters of the NCLAT is located in New Delhi. 
• Its composition includes a chairperson, as well as judicial and technical members who are appointed by the Central Government based on their expertise and experience in fields such as law, finance, accountancy, management, and administration.
• When an appeal is received from an aggrieved individual, the Appellate Tribunal conducts a hearing, allowing the appellant to present their case. 
• Following the hearing, the NCLAT may issue orders that confirm, modify, or set aside the appealed order. 
• NCLAT must dispose of appeals within six months of receiving the appeal. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.