Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 10 to 15 April, 2023

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the Indian Patent Office rejected an application by pharmaceutical giant Johnson & Johnson (J&J) to extend its patent on the drug bedaquiline beyond July 2023. 
• Bedaquiline is a drug in tablet form used to treat drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB). 
• J&J’s patent application was for the production of a fumarate salt of a compound, with which to make “Bedaquiline tablets”. 
• Following Two Indian  groups opposed the patent: 
  • 1) ‘Network of Maharashtra people living with HIV’ and 
  • 2) Nandita Venkatesan and Phumeza Tisile,(Both TB survivors, supported by Médecins Sans Frontières)
• Both groups argued that J&J’s method to produce a “solid pharmaceutical composition” of bedaquiline is “obvious, known in the art” and doesn’t require an “inventive step”.
• According to the Indian Patent Act 1970 Section 2(1)(ja), an ‘inventive step’ is an invention that is “not obvious to a person skilled in the art”.
• A patent is a type of intellectual property that gives its owner the legal right to exclude others from making, using, or selling an invention for a limited period of time in exchange for publishing an enabling disclosure of the invention.
• On 20 April 1972, “The Patents Act, 1970” was brought into force. The Act provides details for different provisions related to patents in India. The Act later further amended in 1999, 2002 and 2005.
• The following are not recognized as “inventions” in this Act,-
  • an invention which is frivolous or which claims anything obviously contrary to well established natural laws
  • an invention intended use or commercial exploitation of which would be contrary to public order or morality or which causes serious prejudice to human, animal or plant life or health or to the environment;
  • the mere discovery of a scientific principle or the formulation of an abstract theory or discovery of any living thing or non-living substance occurring in nature
  • The mere discovery of a new form of a known substance which does not result in the enhancement of the known efficacy of that substance or the mere discovery of any new property or new use for a known substance or of the mere use of a known process, machine or apparatus unless such known process results in a new product or employs at least one new reactant.
  • a substance obtained by a mere admixture resulting only in the aggregation of the properties of the components thereof or a process for producing such substance;
  • the mere arrangement or re-arrangement or duplication of known devices each functioning independently of one another in a known way;
  • a method of agriculture or horticulture;
  • any process for the medicinal, surgical, curative, prophylactic diagnostic, therapeutic] or other treatment of human beings or any process for a similar treatment of animals to render them free of disease or to increase their economic value or that of their products.
  • plants and animals in whole or any part thereof other than micro-organisms but including seeds, varieties and species and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals;
  • a mathematical or business method or a computer programme per se or algorithms;
  • a literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work or any other aesthetic creation whatsoever including cinematographic works and television productions;
  • a mere scheme or rule or method of performing mental act or method of playing game;
  • a presentation of information
  • topography of integrated circuits
  • an invention which, in effect, is traditional knowledge or which is an aggregation or duplication of known properties of traditionally known components or components.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently the group of scientists were banned by GISAID from using the database that contained the genomic information they used for their study on COVID-19 virus origins. It raised controversy and many scientists,even, have expressed surprise about the ban.
• GISAID is an open-access database that was launched in 2008. It  is a “nonprofit organisation” and headquartered at Munich, Germany (since 2013) (Washington, D.C., United States (2006-2013). 
• The acronym GISAID found first mention in a correspondence letter published in the journal Nature in 2006, putting forward an initial aspiration of creating a "consortium" for a new Global Initiative on Sharing Avian Influenza Data, whereby its members would release data in publicly available databases up to six months after analysis and validation.Thus statement (1) is incorrect.
• It hit international headlines when, in January 2020, just before the pandemic began, researchers in China uploaded the first genetic sequence of the novel coronavirus to its server, giving the international community of virus and vaccine researchers quick and valuable insight into the virus that would change the world.Thus statement (2) is correct.
• The database has become the world's largest repository for SARS-CoV-2 sequences. GISAID facilitates genomic epidemiology and real-time surveillance to monitor the emergence of new COVID-19 viral strains across the planet. 
• In 2010, Germany became the official host of the GISAID platform. Its initiative promotes the rapid sharing of data from all influenza viruses and the coronavirus causing COVID-19. The Initiative ensures that open access to data in GISAID is provided free-of-charge to all individuals that agreed to identify themselves and agreed to uphold the GISAID sharing mechanism governed through its Database Access Agreement.
• “Zenodo” is a general-purpose open repository, developed under the European OpenAIRE program and operated by CERN. It allows researchers to deposit research papers, data sets, research software, reports, and any other research related digital artefacts. It allows the uploading of files up to 50 GB. It operates outside GISAID. Thus statement (3) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• Plastic waste disposal has been a serious issue for mankind. Over the last decades it has become a severe threat to the overall environment.
• India’s Environment Minister last year said, the country is generating 3.5 billion kgs of plastic waste annually and that the per capita plastic waste generation has also doubled in the past five years. Of this, a third comes from packaging waste.
• Biotransformation technology is a novel approach developed for plastic waste disposal. The tech is the world’s first that ensures polyolefins fully biodegrade in an open environment causing no microplastics. Thus statement (1) is correct.
• This technology was co-developed by
  • The Imperial College in London, UK, and
  • A Britain-based startup, Polymateria.
• Plastics made using this technology are given a pre-programmed time during which the manufactured material looks and feels like conventional plastics without compromising on quality.
• Once the product expires and is exposed to the external environment, it self-destructs and bio-transforms into bioavailable wax. This wax is then consumed by microorganisms, converting waste into water, CO2, and biomass. Thus statements (2) and (3) are correct.

EXPLANATION:

• “World Water Day” is an annual United Nations (UN) observance day held on 22 March that highlights the importance of freshwater. It was started in 1993. The day is used to advocate for the sustainable management of freshwater resources. The UN World Water Development Report (WWDR) is also released each year around World Water Day.Thus statement (1) is incorrect.
• A core focus of World Water Day is to inspire action toward Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6: Water and Sanitation for all by 2030. 
• UN-Water is the convener for World Water Day and selects the theme for each year in consultation with UN organisations that share an interest in that year's focus. The theme of World Water Day 2023 was “Accelerating Change” to solve the water and sanitation Crisis.Thus statement (2) is correct.
• The chart given below explains the distribution of water on the earth. It is apparent that lakes are the larger container of water than rivers. Lakes account for about 20.9 % of total surface water on earth and rivers contain just about 0.49 % of surface water.  Thus statement (3) is correct.  

EXPLANATION:

• Freshly, the provision of “disqualification of members of parliament” sparked in the news when the congress party leader was convicted for 2 year sentence on the ground of defamation. 
• The provision regarding it is detailed in the constitution and the representation of people act 1951.
• Article 102 of the constitution provides the following provision for disqualification of members of parliament
  • A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament—
    • if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder
    • f he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
    • if he is an undischarged insolvent
    • if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
    • if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.
    • A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
• Chapter III of Representation of people act 1951 deals with the provision of disqualification. As per section 10A if the Election Commission is satisfied that a person has failed to lodge an account of election expenses within the time and in the manner required by or under this Act, the Election Commission shall, by order published in the Official Gazette, declare him to be disqualified and any such person shall be disqualified for a period of three years from the date of the order. Thus statement (2) is incorrect.
• Again section 11A provides for disqualification on the ground of corrupt practices and section 123 of RPA 1951 includes false statements under the term corrupt practices. Hence statement (3) is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently a news published that after nearly two decades, school students at all levels will learn from updated textbooks to be introduced in the 2024-25 academic year. This is in keeping with the National Education Policy 2020 and National Curriculum Framework (NCF) released in August 2022. The new National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) textbooks will be developed in 22 languages, in consonance with the NEP 2020 perspective of imparting multilingual education. 
• The textbook will be based of five stage learning process “Panchaadi”. It will include- 
  • Aditi (Introduction): As a first step, the Teacher introduces a new concept/topic by establishing a connection with the child’s prior knowledge. Children gather relevant information regarding the new topic with the help of the Teacher by asking questions, exploring, and experimenting with ideas and material. 
  • Bodh (Conceptual Understanding): Children try to understand core concepts through play, enquiry, experiments, discussion, or reading in the second step. The Teacher observes the process and guides the children. 
  • Abhyas (Practice): The third step is about practice to strengthen understanding and skills through a range of interesting activities. Teachers can organise group work or small projects to reinforce conceptual understanding and attainment of competencies.
  • Prayog (Application): The fourth step is about applying the acquired understanding in the child’s everyday life. This can be accomplished through various activities and small projects.
  • Prasar (Expansion): The fifth step is about spreading the acquired understanding through conversations with friends, telling each other new stories, singing new songs, reading new books together and playing new games with each other.

EXPLANATION:

• Soon earlier, the interpol has withdrawn the name of diamond merchant mehul choksi in their red corner notice, however CBI is activated for reintroduction of the PNB scam accused choksi name in the list.
• The term “Interpol” is an abbreviation of “The International Criminal Police Organization”. It is an international organisation that facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control. It is the world's largest international police organisation. The headquarter of Interpol is located at Lyon, France, with seven regional bureaus worldwide, and a National Central Bureau in all 195-member states.Thus statement (1) is incorrect.
• Interpol was founded on 7 September 1923 at Vienna as the outcome of the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC) congress. However, it was conceived during the first International Criminal Police Congress in 1914.
• Interpol provides investigative support, expertise and training to law enforcement worldwide. The focus three major areas of transnational crime are:- terrorism, cybercrime and organised crime. Nonetheless, Its  mandate covers virtually every kind of crime, including crimes against humanity, child pornography, drug trafficking and production, political corruption, intellectual property infringement, as well as white-collar crime.
• An Interpol notice is an international alert circulated by Interpol to communicate information about crimes, criminals, and threats by police in a member state (or an authorised international entity) to their counterparts around the world. The information disseminated via notices concerns individuals wanted for serious crimes, missing persons, unidentified bodies, possible threats, prison escapes, and criminals' modus operandi.
• There are eight types of notices, seven of which are colour-coded by their function: red, blue, green, yellow, black, orange, and purple. The best-known notice is the red notice which is the "closest instrument to an international arrest warrant in use today". An eighth special notice is issued at the request of the United Nations Security Council.
• Notices may be issued in any of the four official languages of Interpol: English, French, Spanish, and Arabic.
• Following are the detail of 8-notices issued by interpol-
  • Red notice - To seek the location/arrest of a person wanted by a judicial jurisdiction or international tribunal with a view to extradition
  • Blue notice - To locate, identify or obtain information on a person of interest in a criminal investigation
  • Green notice - To warn about a person's criminal activities if that person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety (Thus statement (3) is incorrect.)
  • Yellow notice - To locate a missing person or to identify a person unable to identify themselves
  • Black notice - To seek information on unidentified bodies
  • Orange notice - To warn of an event, a person, an object or a process representing an imminent threat and danger to persons or property
  • Purple notice - To provide information on modi operandi, procedures, objects, devices, or hiding places used by criminals
  • Interpol–United Nations Security Council special notice-To inform Interpol's members that an individual or an entity is subject to UN sanctions.

EXPLANATION:

• The Supreme Court on March 27, 2023 held that borrowers must be given an opportunity to be heard before their accounts are classified as fraud. In a significant judgement, a Bench led by Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud said the civil consequences of an account being declared as fraud under the Reserve Bank of India (Frauds Classification and Reporting by Commercial Banks and Select FIs) Directions, 2016 or the central bank’s ‘Master Directions on Fraud’ amount to “civil death” to borrowers. The principle of natural justice — ‘ audi alteram partem’ (hear the other side) — demands that borrowers, who face a condition akin to blacklisting, should be given a chance to be heard first.
• “Audi alteram partem” is a Latin phrase meaning "listen to the other side", or "let the other side be heard as well". It is the principle that no person should be judged without a fair hearing in which each party is given the opportunity to respond to the evidence against them. Thus statement (1) is correct.
• "Audi alteram partem" is considered to be the principle of natural justice in most legal systems. This principle includes the rights of a party or its lawyers to confront the witnesses against them, to have a fair opportunity to challenge the evidence presented by the other party, to summon one's own witnesses and to present evidence, and to have counsel, if necessary at public expense, in order to make one's case properly. Thus statement (2) is correct.
• The principles of natural justice have come to be recognised as being a part of the guarantee contained in Art. 14 because of the new and dynamic interpretation given by the Supreme Court to the concept of equality which is the subject matter of that Article. A violation of a principle of natural justice by a State action is a violation of Art. 14. Though the two rules of natural justice, namely, “nemo judex in causa sua” and “audi alteram partem”, have now a definite meaning and connotation in law and their content and implication are well understood and firmly established, they are nonetheless not statutory rules. Each of these rules yields to and changes with the exigencies of different situations"
• In the case of Union of India v. Tulsi Ram Patel(1985-II-LLJ-206) (SC), the Hon'ble Apex Court while answering the principle controversy in that case, held that the principle of audi alteram partem would have no application in face of the doctrine of pleasure embodied under Arts. 310 and 311 of the Constitution of India and more particularly in view of the second proviso of Clause C of Art. 311(2) of the Constitution. Still the view expressed and observations made by the Hon'ble Apex Court in regard to the need for applying this maxim to such actions and its significance emerging from the principles of natural justice, is worth-referring. Thus statement (3) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• The Ministry of Commerce and Industry on September 15, 2003, formed the Intellectual Property Appellate Board to hear appeals against the Registrar’s decisions under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
• The Intellectual Property Appellate Board will have meetings in Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, and Ahmedabad, with its headquarters in Chennai. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board is formed under Section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 (IPAB).Thus statement (1) is correct.
• The IPAB's case jurisdiction was divided between trademarks, patents, copyright, and geographical indications, with trademarks being the most important business.
• The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) assists applicants in obtaining worldwide patent protection for their innovations, assists patent offices in making patent granting decisions, and promotes public access to a plethora of technical information relevant to those inventions.
• Applicants can seek protection for an invention in a large number of countries by filing a single international patent application under the PCT. WIPO is in charge of the PCT.
• Copyright is a bundle of rights given by the law to the creators of literary, dramatic, musical and creative works and the producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings. The rights guaranteed under Copyright law include the rights of reproduction of the work, distribution of the work to the public, adaptation of the work and translation of the work.Thus statement (2) is correct.
• Copyrights of works from the nations included in the International Copyright Order are protected in India as if they were Indian works. The term of copyright in a work shall not be greater than that enjoyed by it in its country of origin.Thus statement (3) is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act of 1972, which went into effect on April 1, 1976, defined "antiquity" as "any coin, sculpture, painting, epigraph, or other work of art or craftsmanship; any article, object, or thing detached from a building or cave; any article, object, or thing illustrative of science, art, crafts, literature, religion, customs, morals, or politics in bygone ages; any article, object, or thing of historical interest". Thus statement (1) is correct.
• For “manuscript, record or other document which is of scientific, historical, literary or aesthetic value”, this duration is “not less than seventy-five years.”Thus statement (2) is correct and statement (3) is incorrect.
• Item 67 of the Union List, Item 12 of the State List, and Item 40 of the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution all deal with the country's heritage.
• Prior to independence, in April 1947, an Antiquities (Export Control) Act was created to ensure that "no antiquity could be exported without a licence." The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act was passed in 1958. Then, in 1971, there was a commotion in Parliament over the theft of a bronze statue from Chamba as well as several notable sandstone idols from other locations.
• Together with the UNESCO convention, this pushed the government to establish The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972 (AATA), which went into effect on April 1, 1976.
• According to the AATA, "it shall be unlawful for any person, other than the Central Government or any authority or agency authorised by the Central Government in this behalf, to export any antiquity or art treasure..." No person shall carry on the business of selling or offering to sell any antiquity, either personally or via another person acting on his behalf, unless under and in conformity with the terms and conditions of a licence."
• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) issues this permit. Following the implementation of the AATA, the Centre requested that traders in antiquities and art items declare their antiquities possessions.

EXPLANATION:

• The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 an Act of the Parliament of India to provide for the conservation of forests and for matters connected therewith or ancillary or incidental thereto. It was further amended in 1988. This law extends to the whole of India. It was enacted by Parliament of India to control further deforestation of Forest Areas in India.
• Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 has been continuously monitored by the Supreme Court since the Godavarman case judgment in 1996. Thus statement (1) is correct.
• While the concept of deemed forests has not been clearly defined in any law including the Forest Conservation Act of 1980. Thus statement (2) is correct.
• Deemed forests, which comprise about 1% of India’s forest land, are a controversial subject as they refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records. Thus statement (3) is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:

• Bail is defined as "the release of a person from legal custody by undertaking that he shall appear at the time and place designated and submit himself to the jurisdiction and judgement of the court."
• Although the term "bail" is not defined specifically in Indian law, the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) differentiates between "bailable" and "non-bailable" offences. It also defines three sorts of bail: regular bail under Sections 437 and 439, interim bail or short-term bail granted while a regular or anticipatory bail application is pending before the court, and anticipatory or pre-arrest bail. Thus statement (1) is correct.
• After the 41st Law Commission Report in 1969 highlighted the need for a safeguard that guards against arbitrary violation of one's personal liberty, such as when politicians hold their opponents in bogus cases, the provision for "anticipatory bail" was created under Section 438 of the CrPC. Thus statement (2) is correct.