Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 13 to 18 May 2024

EXPLANATION: 

• The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas recently stated that the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) has initiated a work plan. This plan evaluates national contexts, formulates policy frameworks, and organises biofuel workshops.

• GBA is an India-led initiative launched during G20 in New Delhi to develop an alliance of governments, international organisations, and Industries to facilitate the adoption of biofuels. It aims to foster the international trade of biofuels and offer technical assistance for various nations' biofuel policies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Currently, the Global Biofuel Alliance members include 19 countries and 12 international organisations, including both G20 members and non-member countries. The objective is to facilitate international cooperation and intensify sustainable biofuel use. GBA Members constitute major producers and consumers of biofuels.  Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Biofuels are sustainable fuels obtained from biomass, which includes materials from plant sources, agricultural, livestock, household, and industrial organic waste. These fuels present a much cleaner alternative to traditional fossil fuels. Unlike fossil fuels, formed through slow natural processes over millions of years, biofuels are produced relatively quickly from biomass, making them a more renewable and environmentally friendly energy source. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the Punjab Agricultural University (PAU), Ludhiana, developed a biocontrol agent called Trichoderma Asperellum to combat ‘foot rot’ disease in Basmati rice Varieties.
• Foot Rot Disease, also called Bakanae disease, is caused by the fungus Fusarium verticillioides. This pathogen, transmitted through soil and seeds, infects plants by initially targeting the roots before spreading to the base of the stem. It poses a significant threat to Basmati rice, especially during seedling. 
• However, the risk of infection remains even after seedlings are transplanted if they are already infected. The progression of symptoms in infected seedlings starts with a noticeable pale yellow discolouration, followed by a phase where they elongate and become dry, leading to their eventual death in most cases.

Hence, option C is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has updated its dietary guidelines to combat the increasing occurrence of non-communicable diseases in India. According to these new guidelines, 56.4% of India's disease burden can be attributed to poor dietary habits. Drafted by a multidisciplinary team headed by Dr. Hemalatha R, Director of ICMR-National Institute of Nutrition (NIN), these guidelines highlight the important relationship between diet and non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in India. 
• Noon-communicable diseases (NCDs), also called chronic diseases, are medical conditions not caused by infectious agents and cannot be spread from one person to another. These diseases combine genetic, physiological, environmental, and behavioural factors. 
• They develop slowly and do not show symptoms in their early stages. Major categories of NCDs comprise cardiovascular diseases (such as heart disease and stroke), cancers, chronic respiratory conditions (including chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and asthma), and diabetes. They require treatment for several years, and some require treatment for the rest of their lives.
• Currently, Non-communicable diseases (NCDs) significantly contribute to early mortality worldwide, claiming the lives of 41 million individuals annually. This accounts for 71% of all global deaths. The impact is disproportionately felt in low- and middle-income countries, where 86% of the 17 million premature deaths caused by NCDs happen before reaching 70 years of age. 
• India is grappling with a significant health challenge, with 101 million people living with diabetes and 136 million with prediabetes. Cardiovascular diseases are the leading cause of death, while cancer cases are expected to increase by 57.5% by 2040.  Non-communicable diseases (NCDs) affect health and have a considerable economic impact. The World Economic Forum estimates that NCDs and mental health conditions could cost India $4.58 trillion from 2012 to 2030.  

Hence, option C is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) published the Indian Space Situational Assessment Report (ISSAR) for 2023. This report offers a detailed analysis of India’s space assets and assesses their vulnerability to potential collisions in space. The ISSAR provides valuable insights into the current state of India’s space infrastructure and aims to enhance the country’s ability to manage and safeguard its assets in the increasingly crowded space environment. 
• The report highlights a consistent increase in the number of objects in space, evidenced by a record number of payloads deployed and launched globally in 2023. This trend suggests an improvement in space accessibility and the broadening use of space technology in everyday life. In 2023, the space object population grew by 3143 items, stemming from 212 launches and on-orbit break-up events, an uptick from the 2533 items added from 179 launches in 2022. India contributed significantly with the launch of 127 satellites by the end of December 2023. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• According to the report, by the end of 2023, India had successfully deployed 22 satellites into Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) and 29 into Geostationary Orbit (GEO). Three ongoing deep space missions underscored the country's space exploration efforts: the Chandrayaan-2 Orbiter, the Aditya-L1 solar mission, and the propulsion module of Chandrayaan-3. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The report emphasises the notable rise in Collision Avoidance Maneuvers (CAMs) executed by ISRO throughout 2023. ISRO undertakes Collision Avoidance Analysis (COLA) to evaluate and avert possible space collisions. To safeguard India's space assets, ISRO completed 23 CAMs in 2023, increasing from 21 in 2022 to 19 in 2021. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• ISRO actively participates in international forums such as the Inter-Agency Debris Coordination Committee (IADC), contributing to discussions and guidelines on space debris and the long-term sustainability of outer space activities.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, India signed a 10-year agreement with Iran to develop and manage the Chabahar port, marking a pivotal development in bilateral ties between the two nations. The agreement replaces an initial pact in 2016 that covered India’s operations at the Shahid Beheshti terminal of Chabahar port, which has been renewed annually. 

About Chabahar Port:

• Chabahar Port is a seaport in Chabahar, southeastern Iran, on the Gulf of Oman.
• The port is located in the Sistan-Balochistan province.
• It offers a direct trade route for Iran with the Indian Ocean, bypassing the crowded and strategically sensitive Strait of Hormuz. 
• The port consists of two separate ports, Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari. 
• The Chabahar port is a crucial trade gateway for India, Iran, and Afghanistan with Central Asia.
• In May 2016, India, Iran, and Afghanistan agreed to develop Chabahar's Shahid Beheshti Terminal.
• It is India's first foreign port project. 
• The port would enable India to bypass Pakistan, access Afghanistan, and ultimately Central Asia.
• The distance from Kandla port in Gujarat to Chabahar port is 550 Nautical Miles, and from Chabahar to Mumbai, it extends to 786 Nautical Miles.  

Hence, option C is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime recently published the World Wildlife Crime Report 2024. This document analyzes the illegal trade in wildlife from 2015 to 2021. 
• This is the third edition (2024) of the report, which investigates the trends in the illegal trade of protected wildlife species. It offers a comprehensive examination of the damages and consequences of wildlife crimes, explores what drives the trends in wildlife trafficking, and reviews the current understanding of how effective various interventions are in addressing this issue. 
• According to the report, rhinos and pangolins were the most impacted animal species, with the Rhino Horn Market being the largest at 29% and the Pangolin Scales Market close behind at 28%. The Elephant Ivory Market ranked third at 15%. Other species affected included eels, crocodiles, parrots, cockatoos, various carnivores, turtles, tortoises, snakes, and seahorses, which made up additional, smaller percentages of the market. 
• The plant species most impacted were cedars and other members of the Sapindales order, with their market share at 47%. Following closely, the market for Rosewoods was the second largest, covering 35%. The Agarwood market and other species from the Myrtales order were the third largest, constituting 13%. Other species that faced significant effects included the golden chicken fern and orchids, among various others. 
• The data on seizures of biodiversity products reveals that corals constitute 16% of the total seizures, while crocodilians represent 9%. Elephants and bivalve molluscs each account for 6% of the seizures.  

Hence, option B is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the Kerala temple authorities have banned the use of oleander in temple offerings after a 24-year-old woman died after accidentally chewing some oleander leaves. 
• Oleander, also called rosebay, is a widely cultivated plant worldwide in tropical, subtropical, and temperate regions. Its resilience to drought conditions makes it a favored choice for landscaping and decorative uses. 
• In Kerala, the plant is known by the names arali and kanaveeram. This plant is commonly cultivated beside highways and beaches, serving as an organic, green barrier. It has often been referenced in classical Ayurvedic literature, including the Brihattrayi and Nighantus texts. 
• Nerium oleander is used in Ayurveda medicine to treat chronic and obstinate skin diseases, including leprosy. The Bhavaprakasha, a significant Ayurvedic text, identifies oleander as toxic but advocates for its application in healing infected sores, various skin ailments, microbial and parasitic infections, and relieving itchiness. 
• Hence, option B is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• The 7th edition of the India-France Joint Military Exercise SHAKTI commenced recently at the Joint Training Node in Umroi, Meghalaya. Shakti Exercise is a biennial joint military exercise between the armies of India and France. It was initiated in 2011 and enhance defence ties and operational compatibility between the two nations' armies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Shakti Exercise aims to strengthen the combined military capabilities of both parties, enabling them to conduct multi-domain operations in Sub-Conventional scenarios as outlined in Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate. This joint exercise will concentrate on semi-urban and mountainous operations. It will facilitate the exchange of superior practices in Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures for executing joint operations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• According to the study, the Indian Ocean basin-wide (IOBW) index closely associates dengue outbreaks in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres. The researchers collected data on annual dengue cases reported from 46 Southeast Asia and American countries over 30 years (1990-2019). Monthly dengue case reports from 24 countries over six years (2014-2019) were also analysed to assess seasonal variations.
• The Indian Ocean Basin-Wide (IOBW) Index measures the fluctuations in average sea-surface temperatures throughout the tropical Indian Ocean. This index has become crucial in forecasting the severity and onset of dengue outbreaks in various countries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The index demonstrates a stronger correlation with the Southern Hemisphere compared to the Northern Hemisphere. Its influence on temperatures is particularly significant in tropical areas, impacting dengue incidence rates in regions like Brazil. Dengue epidemics peak in the Northern Hemisphere from July to October and in the Southern Hemisphere from February to April, corresponding to respective summer periods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Higher positive IOBW index values correlate with increased dengue incidence rates, while lower values correspond to reduced incidence. The relationship between the temperature of the Indian Ocean and the occurrence of dengue fever can be attributed to teleconnections. These atmospheric phenomena facilitate the long-distance transport of heat and moisture, influencing weather patterns globally. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Prabir Purkayastha, founder and editor-in-chief of NewsClick, was released from Tihar Jail after the Supreme Court invalidated his arrest due to the grounds of arrest were not provided. The court also said that the "right to be informed about the grounds of arrest flows from Article 22(1) of the Constitution of India and any infringement of this fundamental right would vitiate the process of arrest and remand." 
• Article 22 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. The article is part of Fundamental Rights, which guarantees the civil liberties of individuals to ensure their protection and respect as citizens of India. Key provisions under Article 22 of the Indian constitution are:
• • • Article 22 (1) specifies that an individual who is taken into custody must promptly know the arrest reasons and can choose and consult a lawyer. Article 22(2) says that an individual arrested must be presented to a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding travel time, and cannot be held beyond this without a magistrate's approval. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Article 22(3) specifies that the provisions outlined in clauses (1) and (2) do not apply to: (a) any individual currently classified as an enemy alien or (b) any individual who has been arrested or detained under any legislation that allows for preventive detention. 
    • Article 22 (4) states that preventive detention laws cannot allow detaining someone beyond three months unless an Advisory Board, made up of current or former High Court judges or those eligible to be, affirms there's enough reason for it before the three-month period ends. 
    • Article 22 (5) states that if any person is detained in pursuance of an order made under any law providing for preventive detention, the authority must quickly inform them of the reasons for their detention and give them a chance to contest it.
    • Article 22(6) states that the authority doesn't need to disclose facts deemed against public interest under clause (5).
• Under Union List the Parliament has power to make a law for preventive detention for the reasons connected with foreign affairs, defence, or security of India. And under Concurrent List both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact preventive laws for the reasons related to the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community. Hence, statement 2 is correct.