Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 15 to 20 January, 2024

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, Scientists have identified an entirely new species of fungus in Kerala called 'Paramyrothecium indicum'.
• It is an entirely new species of phytopathogenic fungus. Phytopathogens are parasites that live on plant hosts. The majority of Paramyrothecium are phytopathogens.
• They are accountable for "serious plant diseases that may have a negative impact on crop productivity." Paramyrothecium leaf spots are a fungal disease that can infect a range of plants.
• Some Paramyrothecium species release secondary metabolites with bioherbicidal properties, which could be used to manage weeds.
• About Fungi: Fungi, in addition to Animalia (animals), Plantae (plants), Protista, Archaea/Archaebacteria, and Bacteria or Eubacteria, are the six 'kingdoms' of biology.
• Fungi include yeasts, as well rusts,  mildews, smuts, moulds, and mushrooms. They're considered eukaryotic organisms, meaning their cells have membrane-bound organelles and well-defined nuclei.
• Some parasites of plants cause illnesses such as mildews, rusts, scabs, and canker. Fungal infections in crops can cause major financial losses for farmers. Only a few fungi cause animal illnesses. Athletes' feet, ringworm, and thrush are examples of human skin illnesses.
• Fungi are also necessary for many home and industrial activities, particularly the production of beer, wine, bread, and certain cheeses. Thus, option C is the correct answer.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, the Minister of State (Independent Charge) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) launched the MPLADS e-SAKSHI Mobile Application. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It was launched for revised fund flow procedure under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLAD) Scheme. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.

About the e-SAKSHI application:

• Members of Parliament (MPs) will reap numerous benefits from the launch of the e-SAKSHI mobile application under the MPLAD scheme, which will transform how MPs interact with and oversee development projects in their areas.
• MPs may propose, monitor, and manage initiatives with ease thanks to the smartphone 
• Decision-making processes are improved by this real-time access, which makes it possible to react quickly to new needs or problems.
• Through the programme, MPs and pertinent authorities will be able to communicate more efficiently and share information more quickly.
• With real-time information on the state and advancement of the initiatives that Members of Parliament are proposing, the mobile app will encourage transparency.
• It has the features for budget management, ensuring MPs can monitor expenditures.

EXPLANATION:

• A dying traditional game, given a fresh lease of life at the ongoing Karbi Youth Festival (KYF) in central Assam’s Karbi Anglong district, has fuelled a drive for conserving a creeper known as the African dream herb. Hence,it is not an invasive species in India. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.
• African traditional healers utilise this perennial climbing vine to create vivid dreams that let them effectively communicate with their ancestors. It is also known as Giant sea bean, African dream herb, snuff box and Entada rheedii. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is native to Madagascar, Africa, Asia, and Australia. It grows in thickets, riverine rain forests, tropical lowlands, and along riverbanks and coastlines.
• Uses: A paste prepared from the leaves, bark, and roots is applied topically to burn injuries, mend jaundice in children, and clean wounds. Tea brewed from the entire plant is used to treat stroke aftereffects and increase blood flow to the brain. Its bark is used to cure parasite infections, diarrhoea, and dysentery. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The dark brown, spherical seed that this creeper produces is used to play "Hambi Kepathu." It is nearly the size of a human patella, or kneecap. connected to the Karbi community's beginnings.

EXPLANATION:

• GEAC is a statutory body framed under the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Act 1994. The Environment (Protection) Act of 1986 established the "Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)" statutory committee. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEF & CC) oversees it. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

Functions of GEAC:

• GEAC is a statutory body framed under the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Act 1994. From an environmental standpoint, it is in charge of approving projects involving the widespread use of dangerous live microbes and recombinants in scientific study and commercial manufacturing.
• The committee is also in charge of evaluating applications for the release of genetically altered (GE) products and organisms into the environment, including field tests for research purposes.
• The release of genetically modified crops into the environment is mandatory GEAC clearance. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• Under the Environment Protection Act, the committee or anybody empowered by it may take penal action.

Composition of GEAC: 

• The Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC chairs the GEAC, while an official from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) co-chairs the meeting.
• It now has 24 members, and it convenes once a month to consider applications in the aforementioned fields.
• Experts from several ministries and organisations like the ICAR, ICMR, CCMB, and others make up the membership.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Prime Minister attracted media attention on Makar Sankranti by feeding Punganur cows at his New Delhi home. In addition to signifying a cultural custom, his gesture provided insight on this unusual breed of cow.
• These cows are exceptionally small, measuring just 70-90 cm in height, with an average weight ranging from 115-200 kg. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• It is indigenous to the Andhra Pradeshi village of Punganur in the Chittoor district. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• It is quite resistant to drought and can adjust to poor feed.Thus, statement 3 is correct. It is also highly valued for the milk it produces, which has a higher fat content and is perfect for manufacturing ghee.
• A Punganur cow yields between one and three litres per day, with an 8 percent milk fat content as opposed to 3 to 4 percent in other native breeds. Nutrients like calcium, potassium, magnesium, and omega fatty acids are also abundant in milk.
• Its colour ranges from red or dark brown to white, grey, or light brown. Occasionally, white animals with red, brown, or black spots can also be observed. Its horns are short, and its forehead is large. The crescent-shaped horns frequently stop bending lateral and forward in females and backward and forward in males.
• Compared to hybrid breeds, punganur cows require less land, feed, and water, making them environmentally friendly.
• Cultural Significance: The milk of a Punganur cow is still used in many Andhra Pradesh temples, such as the well-known Tirupati Tirumala Temple, for Ksheera Abhishekam, or milk offerings to the god.

EXPLANATION:

• The ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter, and it started holding sessions in April 1946. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is the principal court of the United Nations and is housed in the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands. Unlike the other six major UN organs, which are all headquartered in New York, USA, this one is not. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
• International Criminal Court (ICJ) Composition

1.  Composed of 15 judges elected by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council for nine-year terms.
2. Election requires a candidate receiving a majority of votes in both bodies.
3. A third of the Court is elected every three years for continuity.
4. Assisted by a Registry, its official languages are English and French.
5. The 15 Judges are distributed across Africa, Latin America, Asia, Western Europe, and Eastern Europe.
6. Unlike other international organizations, the Court is not government-representative.
7. Members are independent, and no member can be dismissed unless they no longer meet the required conditions.

• ICJ's Jurisdiction and Functioning

1. ICJ acts as a world court with two-fold jurisdiction: contentious cases and advisory proceedings. States are only parties to contentious cases if they are members of the United Nations and have accepted its jurisdiction under certain conditions.
2. When parties are parties to a case, they are represented by an agent, who also serves as the head of a special diplomatic mission.
3. The judgment is final, binding, and without appeal. A Member State of the United Nations commits to complying with the Court's decision.
4. A State can bring a matter before the Security Council if the other side fails to fulfill its obligations.
5. The court can establish ad hoc chambers to examine specific cases at the request of the parties.Advisory proceedings are open to five UN organs and 16 specialized agencies.
6. Opinions provided in advisory proceedings are advisory and not binding.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Anti-Defection Law in India, introduced through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1985, was a significant step towards maintaining the stability of the political system and curbing unethical political practices. The primary objective of this legislation was to address the rising concerns related to political defections and the potential instability it brought to parliamentary democracy.
• Before the enactment of the Anti-Defection Law, defections were a common occurrence in Indian politics. Elected representatives often switched party allegiance, leading to frequent changes in government and compromising the stability of elected bodies. This trend raised questions about the integrity of the political process and the accountability of elected officials to the electorate.
• The Anti-Defection Law, embedded in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, provides a framework to address issues related to defection. Key provisions include:

1. Disqualification for Defection: The law mandates that if a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) voluntarily gives up the membership of their party or goes against the party's whip on crucial votes, they can be disqualified.
2. Merger Exception: The law recognizes a merger of political parties under certain conditions. If two-thirds of the members of a party decide to merge with another party, they are exempted from disqualification.
3. Power of the Speaker/Chairman: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is entrusted with the authority to decide on disqualification petitions. The decision must be made within a specific time frame, as outlined in the law. Thus, option A is correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The World Economic Forum (WEF) has published the Global Risk Report 2024, which highlights some of the most serious threats that the world may encounter over the next ten years against the backdrop of warfare, rapid technology advancement, unstable economic conditions, and global warming.
• Global Risk Report 2024 Highlights: 

1. Deteriorating Global Outlook: Global events in 2023, including lethal conflicts, extreme weather conditions, and societal discontent, have contributed to a predominantly negative outlook.
2. Economic Strains and Inequality: The cost-of-living crisis, inflation, and economic downturn are significant concerns for 2024, disproportionately affecting low- and middle-income countries.
3. Security Risks and Technological Advances: Interstate armed conflict and technological advances pose security risks.
4. Structural Forces Shaping Global Risks: Climate change, Demographic Bifurcation, Technological Acceleration, and Geostrategic shifts are four structural forces shaping global risks over the next decade.
5. Environmental Risks at the Forefront: Extreme weather, climate change, biodiversity loss, and critical changes to Earth systems are the most significant environmental risks.
6. AI Powered Misinformation and Disinformation: Rapid advances in technology are creating new problems or worsening existing ones, with Generative AI chatbots like ChatGPT enabling sophisticated synthetic content manipulation.
7. Geopolitical Shifts and Governance Challenges: A deeper divide between global powers may lead to challenges in international governance.

• Some important reports published by WEF are:

1. Energy Transition Index.
2. Global Travel and Tourism Report.
3. Global Gender Gap Report.
4. Global IT Report
5. Global Competitiveness Report.

EXPLANATION:

• The Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyaan (MMUA), a financial assistance programme designed to encourage rural women entrepreneurs, was recently implemented by the Assam government.
• MMUA’S goals:

1. To foster female entrepreneurs inside the State.
2. To give financial assistance to women entrepreneurs so they can earn money.
3. To offer women in the state financial assistance ranging from Rs 35,000 to 40 lakh.
4. Women who will receive financial assistance will be able to earn Rs. 1 lakh. Thus, statement 1 is correct

• Child Limitations:

General and OBC women: Limited to three children to qualify for the scheme.

STs and SCs: Up to four children are allowed to avail benefits. Thus,statement 2 is correct.

• Beneficiaries must also meet two additional requirements in addition to the child limitations:

1. Education of Girls: Girl children of the beneficiaries must be enrolled in school if they have any.
2. For, Girls of non-schooling age have to sign an undertaking committing them to future enrollment.
3. Tree Plantation programme: Recipients are required to verify the survival of trees planted as part of the government's Amrit Brikshya Andolan tree plantation programme.

EXPLANATION: 

• Since 2016, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has been conducting the largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey in the world, known as Swachh Survekshan.
• It has been crucial in encouraging towns and cities to compete in a healthy way in order to provide better services to their residents and make their communities cleaner.
• Together, Indore and Surat received the title of cleanest city. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
• While Maharashtra emerged as the state with the highest ranking of cleanliness in urban areas every year. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The Safaimitra Surakshit Shehar award went to Chandigarh because it was the city with the highest standards of sanitation workers' safety. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
• Important Parameters for Assessment: The Swachh Survekshan 2023 rankings took into account a number of variables, such as:

Door-to-door garbage pickup

Separation of sources

Public spaces' cleanliness

Clean water bodies

Comments from the public regarding the cleanliness of the city.