Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 20 to 25 May 2024

EXPLANATION: 

• The Spices Board of India recently set limits for using Ethylene Oxide (ETO) in spices with CODEX, the international food standards body. This initiative follows incidents where specific spice brands exported from India to Hong Kong and Singapore were withdrawn from the market due to issues with ETO contamination. Following these events, Nepal prohibited selling and importing certain spice mixes due to similar safety concerns. 
• The Spices Board, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is a flagship regulatory and export promotion agency for Indian spices. The board is headquartered in Kochi. It was constituted on 26 February 1987 under the Spices Board Act, 1986, after the merger of the erstwhile Cardamom Board (1968) and Spices Export Promotion Council (1960). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Spices Board is the premier entity for fostering the growth and global outreach of Indian spices, serving as a vital interlink between Indian exporters and their overseas counterparts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Ethylene oxide (ETO) is a sterilant for spices but poses carcinogenic risks if utilised excessively. Measures are being taken to mitigate ETO contamination, and the incidence of sample failures in major markets for Indian spice exports remains below 1%.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the government released a circular warning to its employees about a sophisticated cybercrime— vishing.
• This term is derived from combining "voice" and "phishing," it involves conducting phishing scams via mobile or landline phone calls. In this method, a malicious caller contacts the target, attempting to deceive them into engaging with harmful files or emails or navigating to a site that appears genuine but is designed to collect sensitive personal data.
• In some instances, the attacker may request confidential information from the target. This approach can be incredibly deceitful, with the caller posing as the target's boss or coworker, persuading them to divulge sensitive details. Often, they may employ a sense of urgency as a strategy. Hence, option A is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the Supreme Court registry declined to institute the plea by advocate Mathews J Nedumpara and others, saying it appears that the present petition has been filed to overreach the principles of settled law or with some ulterior motive. The petitioners contended that the Collegium System of appointing judges had denied equal opportunity to the petitioners and thousands of lawyers. They sought a mechanism in place of the Collegium and reconsideration of the striking down of the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act of 2014.
• The Collegium System refers to the mechanism by which judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed and transferred. It is not mentioned in the Constitution. Instead, it has been developed through decisions made by the Supreme Court. In this framework, the Chief Justice of India, together with the four most senior judges of the Supreme Court, is responsible for suggesting the appointment and transfer of judges. However, a High Court Collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and the two senior-most judges of that court. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The government can question or seek explanations about the Collegium's selections. However, the government must proceed with the appointments if the Collegium reaffirms its initial nominations. This mechanism balances the judiciary's independence and the executive's oversight. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• As per Article 124 of the Constitution, the appointment of Supreme Court judges involves the President, who must consult with the Chief Justice of India and, as needed, other Supreme and High Court judges. For High Court judges, under Article 217, the President also consults the Chief Justice of India, the state's governor, and the respective High Court's Chief Justice.

EXPLANATION: 

• Before the 77th session of the World Health Assembly, the World Health Organization (WHO) published its 2024 Global Report on Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs). This document highlights the advancements achieved in 2023 in executing the 2021-2030 Roadmap for Neglected Tropical Diseases. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Key highlights of the Report:

1. As of December 2023, 50 countries had eliminated at least one neglected tropical disease (NTD), marking halfway progress towards the 2030 target of 100 countries.
2. Five countries were recognised for eliminating one NTD, and one country for eliminating two NTDs.
3. In July 2023, Iraq became the 50th country to eliminate at least one NTD. This event marks the halfway point towards achieving the 100-country target set for 2030.
4. Noma was added to the list of NTDs in 2023.
5. In October 2023, Bangladesh became the first country to be validated by WHO for eliminating visceral leishmaniasis as a public health problem. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
6. India was certified free of NTDs like dracunculiasis and yaws. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
7. India, which has the highest disease burden, treated about 117 million fewer people for lymphatic filariasis and soil-transmitted helminthiasis in 2022 compared to 2021.
8. 40.56% of India’s population needed interventions against NTDs in 2022.

• Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) encompass a variety of infectious diseases prevalent in tropical and subtropical areas, impacting over a billion individuals worldwide. The term "neglected" describes these diseases since they often receive less attention and financial support than other health challenges, even though they profoundly affect health and economic progress.

EXPLANATION:   

• Recently, Airbus Helicopters and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to finance Airbus helicopter acquisitions in India.  
• SIDBI was set up on 2nd April 1990 under an Act of the Indian Parliament. Its purpose is to act as the main financial institution tasked with promoting, financing, and developing the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector and to coordinate the functions of institutions engaged in similar activities. It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance. It was incorporated initially as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI). Hence, statement 1 is not correct, and statement 2 is correct.
• Currently, the  Government of India (GoI) holds the shares of SIDBI, and 22 other institutions/PSBs/insurance companies are owned or controlled by the central government. The Bank is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. The Bank offers several schemes, financial services, and products to meet the individual requirements of various businesses.
• Previously, SIDBI was in charge of managing the Small Industries Development Fund and the National Equity Fund. To foster growth and advancement in the MSME sector, SIDBI employs a 'Credit Plus' strategy. This approach extends beyond mere financial support, encompassing initiatives like enterprise development, skill enhancement, marketing assistance, cluster development, and technology upgrading.

EXPLANATION: 

• The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency recently said the  Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) will likely take flight in a few years. The Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) is a collaborative venture between the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The mission explores the moon’s southern polar region and investigates the presence of water and other elements, potentially in surface ice. It aims to showcase innovative surface exploration technologies, focusing on vehicular transport and lunar night survival. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The mission will launch in 2025 and depart on Japan's H3 rocket. It includes both a rover and a lander. JAXA is developing and operating the rover, while ISRO is developing and managing the lander, designed to transport the rover. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The rover, equipped for autonomous navigation and identification of potential water sources, is set to drill and analyse soil samples on the moon using advanced moisture measurement, drilling, and collection technologies, along with modern driving and battery systems. It will carry ISRO, JAXA, NASA, and ESA instruments, showcasing international collaboration.

EXPLANATION:

• Recently, a delegation from India visited the UAE to engage in dialogues with principal stakeholders regarding the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC).
• The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) was announced on the sidelines of the G20 meeting in New Delhi. This announcement was accompanied by the signing of a memorandum of understanding (MoU) between the European Union and seven nations: India, the United States, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), France, Germany, and Italy.
• The corridor aims to establish an efficient and affordable cross-border ship-to-rail transit network as an adjunct to current maritime pathways. Its goals are to boost efficiency, decrease expenses, fortify regional supply chains, improve trade access, foster economic collaboration, create employment opportunities, and reduce carbon emissions. Hence, option D is not correct.
• The IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) initiative is set to include two major routes. First, the Eastern Corridor is designed to create a seamless connection between India and the Arabian Gulf through an integrated network of railroads, ship-to-rail transfers, and roadways. Secondly, the Northern Corridor will link the Gulf region and Europe, utilising similar transportation methods, including railways, ship-to-rail connections, and roads.
• The corridor will encompass a shipping route linking Mumbai and Mundra in Gujarat with the UAE, alongside a railway system connecting the UAE, Saudi Arabia, and Jordan to the Israeli port of Haifa, thereby accessing the Mediterranean Sea.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, India and the U.S. have discussed restoring the Generalised System of Preferences (GSP). The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) was instituted in 1971 under the aegis of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). It is a discretionary trade initiative adopted by developed nations to extend preferential tariff treatment to imports from developing countries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This preferential treatment can either eliminate or reduce customs duties for a list of qualifying products when exported from the beneficiary developing country (BDC) to the developed nation. 
• However, exporters must comply with the scheme's rules of origin to benefit from the GSP. These rules verify that the exported product originates from the exporting country and is not rerouted from a different nation.
• The primary nations offering Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) benefits to developing countries include Armenia, Australia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Canada, the European Union (EU), Japan, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic, New Zealand, Norway, the Russian Federation, Switzerland, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Turkey, the United Kingdom (UK), the United States (US), and Uzbekistan. India does not offer any GSP to the developing and less developing countries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) by the EU and the US significantly benefits developing countries, with India being a major beneficiary. Under the EU GSP, India accounts for about 40% of its EU exports and 10% of its US exports before the US withdrawal.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, the latest Bacterial Pathogens Priority List (BPPL) updated by the World Health Organization (WHO) highlights critical priority pathogens as significant global threats. It is an important tool in the global fight against antimicrobial resistance. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The 2024 WHO Blueprint Priority Pathogen List encompasses 24 antibiotic-resistant bacteria spread across 15 families. This list organizes the pathogens into three categories: critical, high, and medium priority. This categorization aims to guide the focus of research and development efforts and inform public health strategies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• In 2017, the World Health Organization (WHO) introduced the inaugural Bacterial Priority Pathogens List (BPPL) to steer research and development investments towards new antibacterial agents. This list included 13 bacterial pathogens (phenotypes) identified as priorities. The development of this list employed the Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis (MCDA) method.
• MCDA is a scientific approach used in decision-making that assesses and ranks options based on multiple criteria, enabling a systematic and clear decision-making process in scenarios with complex choices. 
• Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) arises when bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites lose their sensitivity to antimicrobial medications. This leads to more severe illnesses and a heightened danger of spreading diseases, ultimately increasing mortality rates. This resistance is largely attributed to the inappropriate and excessive use of antimicrobials. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION:  

• The Prime Minister recently declared a Rs 9.12 lakh investment in the National Savings Certificate (NSC) scheme in his nomination filing. 
• The National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a secure investment option launched by the Indian Government. It aims to promote savings and offer tax benefits, particularly for individuals with low to medium incomes. NSCs are available at post offices and can be acquired individually, on behalf of a minor, or jointly with another adult. 
• The certificates offer a consistent annual return, with the government adjusting the interest rate every quarter. These investments reach maturity after five years. Investors can invest any amount, as the investment limit has no upper cap. According to Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, individuals can avail of tax deductions up to ₹1.5 lakhs per year on their investments. 
• Additionally, the National Savings Certificates (NSCs) can be conveniently transferred between different post offices and persons without any impact on the earned interest or the maturity of the investment. It is permitted only under certain circumstances, such as the death of the investor, judicial decrees, or confiscation by a pledge holder who does the government recognize an officer. 
• Hence, option D is correct.