Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 26 to 31 August, 2024

EXPLANATION: 

Statement 1 is incorrect: CTS is a digital cheque-clearing system that captures cheque images and Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) data at the branch where the cheque is deposited and transmits them electronically, thus removing the need for physical cheque movement. The system employs a robust PKI-based security framework that includes essential security measures such as dual access control, user identification, passwords, and crypto box and smart card interfaces.

Statement 2 is correct. Only instruments that comply with the CTS-2010 standards are eligible for processing through the CTS system. The CTS-2010 guidelines establish benchmarks to standardize cheques issued by banks across India. These standards mandate specific security features on cheques, such as paper quality, watermarks, invisible ink for bank logos, and void pantographs, as well as the standardization of field placements. These security features and standardizations assist presenting banks in verifying and recognizing cheques from drawee banks in an image-based processing environment.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The CTS, also known as the Image Processing System (ICS), was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in 2008 to accelerate the cheque-clearing process. As the central bank and regulatory authority for all banking services in India, the Reserve Bank of India oversees the issuance of currency notes and ensures the smooth functioning of the country's banking system.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is incorrect: A recent comprehensive survey of Lake Turkana was conducted by a team of scientists. Situated in the remote northern part of Kenya, Lake Turkana extends into the Eastern Rift Valley and reaches towards Ethiopia. The lake receives inflow from three rivers—Omo, Turkwel, and Kerio—with the Omo River being the only perennial source, contributing 90% of the lake’s annual water supply. Lake Turkana is Africa's fourth-largest lake and holds the title of the world's largest permanent desert lake. It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage site, celebrated for its distinctive biodiversity and cultural importance.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Recently, Japan's meteorological agency warned that the Nankai Trough is experiencing an increased risk of significant seismic activity and large tsunamis. This subduction zone, located in the Pacific Ocean, is where the Eurasian Plate meets the Philippine Sea Plate, causing the latter to slide beneath the former and into the Earth's mantle. Spanning nearly 900 kilometers, the Nankai Trough extends from Shizuoka, west of Tokyo, to the southern end of Kyushu Island. Historically, this region has been prone to powerful earthquakes of magnitude eight or nine approximately every century or two. These "megathrust quakes," which often occur in pairs, have previously generated severe tsunamis impacting Japan’s southern coastline.

Statement 3 is correct: Recently, a team from the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute (HMI) in Darjeeling reached Uhuru Peak, the summit of Mt. Kilimanjaro in Tanzania. Kilimanjaro, Africa's highest mountain and the world's largest free-standing mountain, is situated in northeastern Tanzania, close to the Kenyan border. The mountain stretches about 50 miles (80 kilometers) from east to west and is classified as a stratovolcano. It comprises three volcanic cones: Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira. Kibo, the tallest cone and a dormant volcano, contrasts with Mawenzi and Shira, which are extinct. Uhuru Peak, the highest point on the Kibo cone, is renowned for its snow-capped summit.

EXPLANATION: 

Statement 1 is correct: The Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI) in Kasaragod has released a new advisory to address the management of ‘koleroga’ (fruit rot disease) affecting arecanut plantations. Koleroga, also known as Mahali or rotting disease, is a severe condition leading to the decay of arecanut fruits and is prevalent in regions with heavy rainfall. The disease is caused by the fungus Phytophthora arecae and was first identified in the former Mysore State in the early 2000s. It typically appears during the Southwest monsoon season and affects areas in Kerala, Karnataka, and Maharashtra.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fruit rot can be caused by various fungi, bacteria, and viruses, making it challenging to prevent and manage. Among the different fungi responsible for fruit rot, Botrytis cinerea is the most common. This fungus affects numerous fruits, such as grapes, strawberries, tomatoes, and peppers. It typically infiltrates plants through wounds or lesions on the leaves and fruit, thriving in humid environments. Once established, the infection can quickly spread, leading to widespread rot. Additionally, the fungi responsible for fruit rot may produce toxins that can be harmful to both humans and animals.

Statement 3 is correct: Fruit rot is more likely to occur under conditions of consistent heavy rainfall combined with temperatures ranging from 20 to 23 °C, high humidity above 90%, and varying periods of rain and sunshine. Symptoms of fruit rot include:

• Development of brown or black spots on the fruit

• Softening of the fruit

• Shriveling of the fruit

• Growth of mold on the fruit

EXPLANATION:

Statement-I is incorrect:The Minister for Minority Affairs has introduced the Jiyo Parsi Scheme portal to streamline the application process for Parsi couples. This platform will offer financial aid for medical treatment based on established protocols, as well as support for childcare and care for elderly dependents. Applicants can track their application status and receive financial assistance directly through the online Direct Benefit Transfer system.

Statement-II is correct: It is a central Sector Scheme that was introduced to counteract the decreasing population of the Parsi community in India through scientific methods and organized measures. Since its launch in 2013-14, the program has provided assistance to over 400 Parsi children.

EXPLANATION: 

Statement 1 is correct: Our bodies harbor multiple distinct microbiomes—groups of microorganisms that coexist with us and play important roles in our health.

Statement 2 is correct: A balanced microbiome is one where there’s a healthy diversity of microorganisms, where no single bacteria, virus or fungus dominates. 

Statement 3 is incorrect: Dysbiosis, on the other hand, refers to an imbalance within a microbiome, where there is a lack of diversity and equilibrium among microorganisms. This disruption can affect how these microorganisms function in the body. Dysbiosis often arises when the bacteria in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, including the stomach and intestines, become unbalanced. Common causes of dysbiosis include infections, antibiotic use, and certain dietary factors.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Union Minister for Jal Shakti recently launched Version 2.0 of the ‘FloodWatch India’ mobile application, developed by the Central Water Commission (CWC). This updated app offers real-time information and flood forecasts for up to 7 days.

Statement  2 is incorrect. The user-friendly app, developed in-house, provides information in English and Hindi through both readable and audio formats. It leverages advanced technologies like satellite data analysis, mathematical modeling, and real-time monitoring to ensure accurate and timely flood forecasts.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The app will also provide State-wise/Basin-wise Flood Forecast (up to 24 hours) or Flood Advisory (up to 7 days) which can be accessed by selecting specific stations, state wise or basin wise from the dropdown menu.

New features in FloodWatch India 2.0 include data from an additional 392 flood monitoring stations, bringing the total to 592 stations, which provides a more comprehensive view of flood conditions nationwide. Additionally, the app now includes information on the storage levels of 150 major reservoirs, offering insights into potential flood risks in downstream areas.

EXPLANATION: 

• Recently, three underwater features in the Indian Ocean were named Ashoka, Chandragupta, and Kalpataru, showcasing India's expanding role in marine science and its dedication to exploring and comprehending the Indian Ocean. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 
• India proposed the names Ashoka, Chandragupta, and Kalpataru for the underwater structures, which were subsequently approved by the International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) and UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC).
• The IHO, established in 1921, is an intergovernmental body focused on improving navigational safety and safeguarding the marine environment. India is a member of the IHO. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The identification of these underwater structures is part of the Indian Southern Ocean Research Programme, launched in 2004 with the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) serving as the lead agency. This program focuses on exploring diverse aspects such as bio-geochemistry, biodiversity, and hydrodynamics. Hence statement 3 is correct 

Seven underwater structures, including the latest additions in the Indian Ocean, have been named either after prominent Indian scientists or based on names proposed by India. 

Previously Named Structures:

• Raman Ridge (designated in 1992)
• Panikkar Seamount (designated in 1993)
• Sagar Kanya Seamount (designated in 1991)
• DN Wadia Guyot

Recently Named Structures:

• Ashoka Seamount: Discovered in 2012
• Kalpataru Ridge: Discovered in 2012
• Chandragupt Ridge: An elongated ridge spanning 675 square kilometers. Hence statement 4 is incorrect
• Thus option C is the correct answer.

EXPLANATION: 

• In August 2024, President Droupadi Murmu made history as the first Indian head of state to visit Timor-Leste, marking a significant milestone in diplomatic relations between the two nations. Her trip to Dili on August 10th was part of a broader tour encompassing Fiji and New Zealand, which began on August 5th.
• The visit culminated in a momentous occasion when President Murmu was bestowed with Timor-Leste's highest civilian honor, the Grand Collar of Order of Timor-Leste. This prestigious recognition underscored the growing importance of India-Timor-Leste relations.  Hence option A is the correct answer.

EXPLANATION: 

In a recent operation, police in Gopalganj, Bihar, confiscated 50 grams of a substance suspected to be Californium, a highly radioactive element estimated to be worth Rs 850 crore.

• Named after the U.S. state of California and the University of California, californium was first synthesized in 1950 by scientists at UC Berkeley. This synthetic element is a silvery-white, radioactive metal, positioned at atomic number 98 on the periodic table. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• Californium does not occur naturally and is created through nuclear reactions, particularly by bombarding curium with helium ions.
  • Properties
    Californium is recognized for its extreme radioactivity, making it both highly valuable and potentially dangerous. As a member of the actinide series on the periodic table, it includes notable isotopes like Cf-251, the most stable with a half-life of 898 years, as well as Cf-249 and Cf-250, which have shorter half-lives. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Californium is highly radioactive, making it dangerous to handle without proper precautions. Its radiation can damage living cells, so handling it requires specialized equipment and safety protocols.
• Exposure to californium can lead to severe health risks, including radiation sickness and an increased risk of cancer. Proper shielding and safety measures are essential when working with or around this element. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

EXPLANATION: 

Statement-I is incorrect: The 10th edition of the India-Sri Lanka Joint Military Exercise, MITRA SHAKTI, recently commenced. This annual exercise, focused on counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations in semi-urban environments, is the largest bilateral exercise conducted by the Sri Lankan Army. It plays a significant role in strengthening the defense partnership between India and Sri Lanka. MITRA SHAKTI is structured to incorporate the latest dynamics of UN peacekeeping operations through tactical drills and practical discussions.

This joint military drill aims to foster closer military cooperation, exchange tactics and strategies, and strengthen the bonds between the armed forces of India and Sri Lanka.

Statement-II is correct: The exercise aims to boost the operational efficiency of both armies by promoting the exchange of skills, experiences, and best practices. This year’s exercise focuses on joint operations in semi-urban settings, in line with Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter, which addresses measures concerning threats to peace and security. 

This collaboration is intended to sharpen the armies' abilities to tackle modern security challenges, such as counter-terrorism and urban combat. An official highlighted that this exercise significantly strengthens defense relations and improves coordination between the Indian and Sri Lankan armed forces. This annual event is vital for fostering cooperation and enhancing the interoperability of the armed forces of both nations.