Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 28 October to 02 November, 2024

EXPLANATION: 

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), enacted in December 1976 during the Emergency period in India, is one of the most significant amendments in the history of the Indian Constitution. 

1. Insertion of New Words in the Preamble: The amendment introduced the words "socialist" and "secular" into the Preamble of the Constitution, which now reads as a “sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic.” This change was aimed at reflecting the ideals of socialism and secularism as integral to the Indian polity.
2. Change in the Phrase: The phrase “unity of the nation” was replaced with “unity and integrity of the nation.” This was intended to emphasize not only national unity but also the integrity of the nation as a whole.

"We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social, economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship; Equality of status and opportunity; and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation."

EXPLANATION:

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) refers to the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1,000 live births in a given year. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), a high IMR is often indicative of inadequate healthcare, poor maternal health, and insufficient access to nutrition and sanitation. Reducing infant mortality is crucial for improving overall child health and achieving sustainable development goals. Thus pair one is incorrect.

Total Fertility Rate (TFR): The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is defined as the average number of children a woman would have during her lifetime based on current age-specific fertility rates. The WHO uses TFR as an important demographic measure to assess population growth and reproductive health. A TFR of about 2.1 is generally considered the replacement level, meaning a population can maintain its size without immigration. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. 

Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR): The Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) represents the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births during a specific time period, usually one year. According to the WHO, this measure reflects the quality of maternal healthcare and the availability of medical resources. A high MMR is often a sign of inadequate healthcare systems, particularly concerning pregnancy and childbirth services. Therefore pair 1 is incorrectly matched. 

Natural Population Growth Rate (NPG): The Natural Population Growth Rate (NPG) is the difference between the number of live births and the number of deaths in a population over a specific period, typically expressed as a percentage of the total population. The WHO emphasizes that the NPG is a critical indicator of population dynamics, reflecting overall health, healthcare access, and socio-economic conditions within a community. A positive NPG indicates population growth, while a negative rate suggests a decline. Thus pair 4 is incorrectly matched. 

Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR): The Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR) is defined as the number of deaths of children under five years of age per 1,000 live births in a given year. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), this rate is a critical indicator of child health and overall development within a country. High U5MR often reflects issues such as inadequate healthcare, malnutrition, lack of clean water and sanitation, and poor maternal health. Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: Tarballs are primarily composed of heavy hydrocarbons and other organic compounds that result from the evaporation of lighter oil components when crude oil interacts with ocean water. They form through the natural breakdown and weathering of crude oil, often originating from oil spills, natural oil seeps, or the degradation of oil released into marine environments. While seawater plays a role in altering crude oil, it is not the source of tarball formation. Instead, tarballs can also include materials from natural seepages found on the ocean floor. These aggregates can accumulate in coastal areas, posing environmental challenges to marine ecosystems.

Statement 2 is correct: The toxic compounds released by tarballs can significantly harm marine life, affecting various species that come into contact with them. Chemicals such as polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), found in tarballs, are known to be harmful and can lead to reproductive issues, growth abnormalities, and even death in marine organisms. These toxic effects can ripple through the food chain, impacting not only individual species but entire ecosystems. Additionally, organisms like fish and seabirds may ingest these toxic materials, leading to further health risks. The presence of tarballs in marine environments is a concern for biodiversity and ecosystem health.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Tarballs have been reported on Indian beaches, particularly in areas affected by oil spills, natural oil seeps, and maritime activities. Regions such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Tamil Nadu have documented instances of tarball contamination along their coastlines. This contamination can pose significant environmental challenges, impacting marine life and coastal ecosystems. The presence of tarballs not only affects biodiversity but also raises concerns for tourism and local communities. Continuous monitoring and mitigation efforts are essential to address this issue effectively.

EXPLANATION:

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is not a statutory body under the National Security Act of 1980 but is established under the National Disaster Management Act, of 2005. The NCMC is responsible for managing disasters in India by coordinating responses, ensuring necessary preventive measures, and minimizing damage and loss of life. It provides financial and logistical support to state governments and works to ensure the country recovers quickly from disasters.

Statement 2 is correct: The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is crucial in handling major crises with serious or national implications. It reviews disaster preparedness measures to ensure readiness for natural disasters and coordinates relief efforts across various agencies and states. Additionally, the NCMC provides logistical and financial support to state governments and ensures all necessary preventive measures are taken to minimize damage and loss of life.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, currently Dr. T. V. Somanathan. The committee comprises Secretaries from various Ministries and Departments responsible for disaster management. The NCMC plays a crucial role in handling major crises with national implications, coordinating disaster preparedness and relief efforts, providing logistic and financial support to state governments, and ensuring preventive measures to minimize damage and loss of life.

EXPLANATION: 

Option A is correct: Raja Mahendra Pratap (1 December 1886 — 29 April 1979) was an influential Indian freedom fighter, journalist, writer, and revolutionary. He was the President of the Provisional Government of India, which functioned as the Indian Government-in-exile during World War I, established in Kabul in 1915. Known for his extensive efforts against British rule, he also In 1915, founded the original Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in Kabul, receiving support from various nations, including Japan. 

Option B is correct: Raja Mahendra Pratap was nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize in 1932 by N.A. Nilsson described him as the editor of the World Federation and an unofficial envoy of Afghanistan. On 1 December 1915, Pratap established the first Provisional Government of India in Kabul, Afghanistan, serving as a government-in-exile for Free Hindustan. He took the role of President, with Maulavi Barkatullah as Prime Minister and Maulana Ubaidullah Sindhi as Home Minister, declaring jihad on the British. Although his movement was supported by anti-British forces, the Amir of Afghanistan, loyal to the British, delayed efforts to overthrow British rule in India.

Option C is incorrect: Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh played a significant role in the Indian independence movement and was deeply involved in international efforts to secure support for India's liberation from British rule. In 1940, during World War II, he established the Executive Board of India in Japan, aiming to garner international backing for the Indian freedom struggle. This board served as a government-in-exile, promoting India's sovereignty and advocating for the rights of Indians living under colonial rule.

Option D is correct: In the 1957 Lok Sabha elections, Raja Mahendra Pratap was elected as an independent candidate to the second Lok Sabha, representing the Mathura constituency. He defeated several candidates, including the Bharatiya Jana Sangh's Atal Bihari Vajpayee, who would later become Prime Minister of India. Vajpayee finished fourth among the five candidates in this election. Pratap's victory highlighted his significant influence and popularity in the region during that period.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: In a Panchayat, all seats are filled by individuals elected directly from designated territorial constituencies within the Panchayat area. To facilitate this, each Panchayat area is divided into these constituencies in a way that aims to maintain a consistent ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allocated to it. This approach ensures that representation is equitable and reflects the demographic distribution across the entire Panchayat area, thereby promoting fair and effective local governance.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for the representation— (a) of the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at the village level, in the Panchayats at the intermediate level or, in the case of a State not having Panchayats at the intermediate level, in the Panchayats at the district level; (b) of the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at the intermediate level, in the Panchayats at the district level.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Not all members of the Gram Sabha are members of the village panchayat. The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who are registered to vote in the village or group of villages covered by a Gram Panchayat. It serves as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system and is not composed of elected members. In contrast, the Gram Panchayat consists of the Sarpanch (Panchayat President) and the Ward Members (Panchs), who are elected by the Gram Sabha. The members of the Gram Panchayat serve a five-year term.

EXPLANATION: 

Statement 1 is incorrect: The RCS-UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) initiative, which aims to enhance infrastructure and connectivity across India, particularly in remote and underserved areas, has successfully completed seven years. Launched on October 21, 2016, by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) as part of India's National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP) 2016, the scheme is grounded in a 10-year vision. The first RCS-UDAN flight, inaugurated by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on April 27, 2017, connected Shimla to Delhi. This initiative focuses on improving unserved air routes, catering to the aspirations of the common citizens, and promoting regional connectivity.

Statement 2 is correct: Viability Gap Funding (VGF) is a crucial component of the RCS-UDAN scheme, aimed at making regional air routes financially viable without requiring the airports to be profitable. This support helps lower the cost of flight operations and is provided to airlines for the first three years of operation on specific routes. The scheme relies on a demand-driven approach, encouraging airlines to propose airports they wish to service while ensuring state governments commit to concessions that facilitate airport operations, such as tax exemptions, free land, and security provisions. Participating states, especially those in the Northeast and Union Territories, must sign a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the central government to share the financial burden of VGF, contributing 20% and 10% respectively. 

Statement 3 is correct: Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik (UDAN-RCS), which translates to "Let the common citizens of the country fly," is a regional airport development program initiated by the Government of India. This program is part of the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS), aimed at enhancing air travel accessibility by upgrading under-serviced air routes. The RCS scheme encompasses the establishment of Greenfield airports and the modernization of existing Brownfield airports, thereby promoting regional connectivity and making air travel more affordable for the common citizen.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: Floating rate bonds are debt instruments characterized by a variable interest rate that fluctuates based on a money market reference rate, such as the federal funds rate or the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR), plus a constant spread. These bonds typically pay interest periodically, usually every three months. One of the key benefits of floating-rate bonds is their ability to enhance the risk profile of an investment portfolio. They can provide higher returns than fixed-rate bonds, as their interest payments adjust with changing interest rates, making them more responsive to market conditions.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Floating interest rate bonds are permitted in India, with one prominent example being the RBI Floating Rate Savings Bonds (FRSBs). Issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), these bonds are considered a safe investment option, offering a variable interest rate that adjusts according to market conditions, making them one of the highest-yielding debt instruments in the country. FRSBs require a minimum investment of ₹1,000, with no maximum limit, and are redeemable after seven years, although some investors may qualify for early withdrawal. These bonds are non-tradeable and cannot be used as collateral for loans. Interest is paid out every six months at a floating rate, and investors can apply for FRSBs online through their bank’s website or offline at a bank branch. To avoid tax deduction at source (TDS) on interest income, investors can submit Form 15H or Form 15G. Hence the correct answer option is “C”.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) is a statutory body established by an Act of the Parliament of India, recognized as an Institution of National Importance. Operating under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying, the NDDB is headquartered in Anand, Gujarat, with regional offices across the country. Its subsidiaries include Indian Dairy Machinery Company Ltd (IDMC), Mother Dairy, Indian Immunologicals Limited in Hyderabad, NDDB Dairy Services, and NDDB Mrida Ltd. The NDDB was created to finance and support producer-owned and controlled organizations, focusing on strengthening farmer cooperatives and promoting national policies conducive to their growth. Cooperative principles and strategies form the foundation of the Board's initiatives. Meenesh Shah has been serving as the Chairman of NDDB since 2021.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was founded by Dr. Verghese Kurien in 1965, under the vision of then Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri, who aimed to replicate the success of the Kaira Cooperative Milk Producers' Union (Amul) across India. Dr. Kurien played a pivotal role in Amul's achievements by establishing a producer-run, democratic farmers' cooperative model. Prior to this initiative, India's dairy industry was limited in capacity and heavily dominated by traders who controlled pricing, leaving marginal milk producers with minimal benefits. This system also led to significant foreign exchange expenditures as India relied on dairy imports from European and New Zealand markets to meet its shortfall.