Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 31 July to 05 August, 2023

EXPLANATION:

• UDAN, which stands for Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik, is a regional connectivity scheme launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation that aims to enhance air connectivity to underserved and remote areas of India. It is not limited to North Indian states only; rather, it covers regions across the entire country. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• UDAN routes are not exclusively operated by government-owned airlines. The scheme is open to all airlines, including private airlines and regional carriers. It encourages participation from various airlines to enhance air connectivity in underserved areas. Private airlines and regional carriers are also eligible to bid for routes under UDAN and receive the associated incentives to operate on these routes. The participation of multiple airlines ensures healthy competition, leading to improved services and increased accessibility to remote regions. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.

Key Features of UDAN Scheme:

• Regional Connectivity: UDAN focuses on connecting underserved and remote areas that were not well-connected by air travel. It aims to bridge the gap between major cities and smaller towns or regions by providing regular air services.

• Viability Gap Funding (VGF): To incentivize airlines to operate on UDAN routes, the government provides Viability Gap Funding (VGF). Under VGF, the government subsidizes a part of the operational cost of airlines operating on selected routes.

• Cap on Airfares: The scheme aims to make air travel affordable for the common citizens of India. To achieve this, the government caps the airfares for a certain number of seats on UDAN flights. This ensures that air travel remains accessible and affordable for passengers.

• Exclusivity Period: To encourage airlines to operate on underserved routes, the selected airlines are given exclusivity on the route for a certain period. This exclusivity period varies depending on the category of the region and the number of flights per week.

• Priority to Remote Regions: Priority is given to connecting remote regions, hilly areas, and islands that have limited or no access to air travel.

• Participation of Airlines: The scheme is open to all airlines, including private airlines and regional carriers. Any airline meeting the eligibility criteria can participate in the bidding process to operate on UDAN routes.

• Enhanced Airport Infrastructure: The scheme includes the development of airport infrastructure in underserved regions to accommodate more flights and passengers.
• Greenfield Airports: UDAN also encourages the development of greenfield airports in regions that do not have an existing airport.

EXPLANATION:

• Lateral entry refers to the appointment of individuals from the private sector or other non-governmental organizations into senior-level positions in the government. Unlike regular recruitment processes where reservations may apply to ensure representation of certain categories (such as Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, etc.), lateral entry positions are typically filled based on merit and expertise, without any provision for reservation. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
• The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is not directly responsible for implementing reservations. The implementation of reservations for socially and educationally backward classes in education and employment sectors is usually carried out by the respective government bodies, such as the central and state governments, as per the policies and laws related to reservations. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment before the 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018. However, after the amendment, the NCBC was given constitutional status and became an independent constitutional body. It has the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

The Worldcoin project is an ambitious initiative that revolves around the groundbreaking concept of "Proof of Personhood." It aims to address the pressing need for robust and secure digital identity verification in an increasingly interconnected world. Thus, option (c) is correct.

How does "Proof of Personhood" Work?

The heart of the "Proof of Personhood" concept lies in the utilization of advanced biometric technology. Central to the Worldcoin project is the innovative device called the "Orb," which leverages eyeball scanning technology for identity verification. Users must undergo an in-person eye-scanning process using the Orb, which then assigns them a unique digital identity.

The Orb scans an individual's eyes to create a digital record that serves as a reliable identifier. The uniqueness of an individual's eye patterns makes this method highly secure and resistant to impersonation or replication.

Once an individual's digital identity is established, they are issued a unique World ID. This World ID becomes their verifiable digital persona, enabling them to engage in secure and trusted digital interactions, transactions, and communications across various platforms.

EXPLANATION:

• The National Cooperative Consumers Federation of India (NCCF) does not operate under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Instead, it operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. NCCF's focus is on consumer cooperatives and promoting the consumer cooperative movement in the country. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• The headquarters of the National Cooperative Consumers Federation of India (NCCF) is located in New Delhi. The central office in New Delhi serves as the main administrative center for NCCF's operations and activities. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The primary aim of the National Cooperative Consumers Federation of India (NCCF) is not facilitating the establishment of credit cooperatives for rural financial inclusion. NCCF's main objective is to promote and develop the consumer cooperative movement in the country. It focuses on activities related to consumer cooperatives, procurement, and distribution of essential commodities, price stabilization, and quality control of products, rather than credit cooperatives for rural finance. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a price support mechanism implemented by the Government of India to protect the interests of farmers and ensure remunerative prices for their crops. It is an essential agricultural policy tool aimed at stabilizing agricultural prices, safeguarding farmers from market fluctuations, and promoting agricultural production and food security.

• MSP is the minimum price set by the government to support farmers and ensure them a fair income for their produce. It acts as a floor price to prevent farmers from selling their crops at distress prices. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• MSP is not applicable to all agricultural commodities produced in India. It is generally announced for major crops like cereals (wheat, rice, etc.), pulses, oilseeds, and some commercial crops. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• The responsibility of recommending MSP for various crops lies with the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is responsible for procuring crops from farmers at the MSP, but it is not involved in recommending MSP for different crops. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• An adjournment motion is a parliamentary procedure in which a motion is moved by a member of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It is not applicable in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The purpose of an adjournment motion is to allow members to discuss a specific and urgent issue before proceeding with the regular business of the House. It provides a means for raising important matters that require immediate attention and action. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• As per the rules and procedures of the Lok Sabha, the discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes. This time duration is specified to allow for a comprehensive discussion on the urgent matter raised in the motion. It ensures that sufficient time is allocated for members to express their views and concerns on the specific issue of urgent public importance. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• The adjournment motion is subject to various restrictions and conditions. It should raise a matter that is definite, factual, urgent, and of public importance. It should not cover more than one matter. Additionally, it should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence. The purpose of this restriction is to ensure that the discussion focuses on a single urgent issue, and it does not lead to a broad or prolonged debate covering multiple subjects. Furthermore, the adjournment motion cannot revive discussions on matters that have already been discussed in the same session. This is to avoid duplication of debates and maintain the focus on current urgent matters. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

The Paharis

• The Paharis consist of Hindus, Muslims, and Sikhs, including people of Kashmiri origin who settled in Rajouri and Poonch districts over time. Among the Paharis, there are upper-caste Hindus and individuals who were displaced from Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

• In 1989, the J&K government, led by Farooq Abdullah, recommended the inclusion of Paharis in the ST list alongside Gujjars, Bakerwals, Gaddis, and Sippis. However, the recommendation was rejected by the Registrar General of India due to the absence of a caste or tribe with that name in their records.

The Paddaris

• The Paddari Tribe resides in the remote Paddar area of the hilly Kishtwar district. Their homeland is situated between Zanskar (Ladakh) to the north and east, Pangi in Himachal Pradesh to the south, and the rest of J&K to the west.

• According to the 2011 census, the Paddari population was recorded at 21,548. Among them, 83.6 percent are Hindus, 9.5 per cent are Buddhists, and 6.8 percent are Muslims.

EXPLANATION:

• Diphtheria is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheria. While diphtheria can affect people of all ages, including adults, it tends to be more severe and common in children under the age of 5 years. Children aged 6 to 10 years can also be affected, but the highest risk group is younger children who have not been fully vaccinated against diphtheria. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is not caused by a virus but by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is a highly contagious respiratory illness that can affect people of all ages, but it is most severe in infants and young children. The bacterium Bordetella pertussis attaches to the cilia (tiny, hair-like extensions) that line part of the upper respiratory system, and it releases toxins (poisons) that damage the cilia and cause airways to swell, leading to severe coughing fits. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• Tetanus bacteria, known as Clostridium tetani, cannot spread from person to person through respiratory droplets or any other means of person-to-person transmission. Tetanus bacteria usually enter the body through cuts, wounds, or injuries that come into contact with contaminated soil or objects. The bacteria produce a toxin that causes painful muscle contractions and can lead to serious health complications. Tetanus is not contagious from one person to another. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

About of the report:

• India's tiger population reached 3,682 in 2022, a significant increase from 2,967 in 2018, showcasing the success of conservation efforts and initiatives to protect the endangered species. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• India is the proud home to approximately 75 percent of the world's tiger population
• In 2022, the highest number of tigers, 785, was reported in Madhya Pradesh, followed by Karnataka (563), Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra (444): The data  provides a breakdown of tiger population across different states in India, with Madhya Pradesh having the highest number of tigers. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

• The report "Status of Tigers: Co-predators and Prey in India-2022" was jointly released by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and the Wildlife Institute of India Thus, statement 3 is correct.

• Nearly a quarter of the tigers were reportedly found outside protected areas: This highlights the importance of implementing enhanced protection measures and habitat restoration to ensure the safety of tigers living outside protected areas.
• Madhya Pradesh stands out as a success story, with its forests witnessing an increase of 259 tigers in just four years
• Karnataka's tiger numbers have shown fluctuations over the years, securing the first position in 2014 and now standing at the second place in 2022.The report "Status of Tigers: Co-predators and Prey in India-2022" was jointly released by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and the Wildlife Institute of India Thus, statement 4 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• Biosimilars are biologic medical products that are almost identical copies of an original product that is manufactured by a different company. They are officially approved versions of original "innovator" products and can be manufactured when the original product's patent expires. Unlike traditional chemical-based generic drugs, which are exact copies of the original drug, biosimilars are similar but not identical to the original biologic drug. This is because biologic drugs are complex molecules made from living organisms, such as proteins, and they may have slight differences in their structure compared to the original product. Thus, statement 1 is  correct.
• The regulatory procedure to get approval for biosimilars is actually more complex compared to that of traditional chemical-based generic drugs. Since biosimilars are not exact replicas of the original biologic drug, their approval requires extensive data to demonstrate similarity and equivalence to the reference product. This involves comprehensive analytical and clinical studies to establish the safety and efficacy of the biosimilar. Regulatory agencies, such as the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the European Medicines Agency (EMA), have established specific guidelines for the approval of biosimilars to ensure their safety and efficacy. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.
• Biosimilars are targeted towards non-communicable diseases such as cancer, asthma, and arthritis. Non-communicable diseases are chronic conditions that are not caused by infectious agents and include conditions like diabetes, heart disease, and various forms of cancer. Biosimilars offer more affordable treatment options for these diseases, as biologic drugs can be very expensive and often out of reach for many patients. By providing more accessible and cost-effective treatments for non-communicable diseases, biosimilars play an essential role in improving healthcare accessibility and affordability. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

EXPLANATION:

• The National Statistical Office (NSO) is one of the two wings of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The other wing is the Programme Implementation Wing. The NSO is responsible for handling the statistical aspects of the country and plays a crucial role in the planned development of the statistical system in India. It lays down and maintains norms and standards in the field of statistics, including concepts, definitions, methodology of data collection, processing of data, and dissemination of results. The NSO coordinates statistical work among various Ministries/Departments of the Government of India and State Statistical Bureaus (SSBs). It advises these Ministries/Departments on statistical methodology and analysis of data. NSO also maintains liaison with international statistical organizations and releases a wide range of statistical information on various aspects of the Indian economy. Thus, statement 1 is  correct.
• The National Statistical Office (NSO) in India is responsible for various statistical activities, and one of its key functions is related to industrial production and the organized manufacturing sector. The NSO compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month in the form of 'quick estimates', conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), and provides statistical information to assess and evaluate the changes in the growth, composition, and structure of the organized manufacturing sector.

Index of Industrial Production (IIP):

• The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a crucial economic indicator that measures the performance of various industrial sectors in India. It is calculated on a monthly basis by the NSO and is used to monitor and analyze the production trends in the country's industrial sector. The IIP provides insights into the overall industrial growth and helps in identifying the performance of individual industries.
• The IIP covers various sectors such as manufacturing, mining, and electricity. It is computed using data from selected factories or establishments across the country, and it takes into account the volume and value of production. The IIP data helps policymakers, businesses, and analysts in understanding the overall economic health of the industrial sector and assists in making informed decisions related to industrial and economic policies. Thus, statement 2 is  correct.

EXPLANATION:

Wheat is one of the main Rabi crops in India. Rabi crops are sown during the winter season and harvested in the spring. The Rabi season starts from October and extends up to March. These crops are well-suited to the winter climate, and their growth is dependent on irrigation and moisture content in the soil.

Kharif Crops:

Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon rains and are harvested in the autumn season. The Kharif season starts from June and extends up to September. These crops are well-suited to the monsoon climate, which provides the necessary water for their growth. The Kharif season is also known as the rainy season or southwest monsoon season.

Key features of Kharif crops:

Sowing: Kharif crops are sown in the beginning of the monsoon season when the rainwater is available for irrigation.

Harvesting: These crops are harvested before the arrival of the winter season.

Examples of Kharif crops: Rice, maize, cotton, jowar (sorghum), bajra (pearl millet), groundnut, soybean, etc.

1. Rice: Rice is a staple food crop in India and one of the primary Kharif crops. It requires a lot of water for its cultivation, which makes it suitable for the monsoon season. Major rice-growing states in India include West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Punjab.
2. Maize: Maize is an important Kharif cereal crop known for its versatility. It is used for human consumption, animal feed, and industrial purposes. Maize cultivation is widespread across states like Karnataka, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
3. Cotton: Cotton is a major cash crop grown during the Kharif season. India is one of the largest producers of cotton in the world. States like Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Punjab, and Haryana are prominent cotton-growing regions.
4.  Mustard: Mustard is an oilseed crop cultivated in the Kharif season. It is used for oil extraction and cooking purposes. Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Haryana are the primary mustard-producing states. Thus, option (b) is correct.